INDIGO RADIO NAVIGATION – Air – DGCA Question Bank For Politics

#1. What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL130 could receive information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL?

220 NM

180 NM

150 NM

120 NM

#2. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325 FT above MSL is:

134 NM

107 NM

158 NM

114 NM

#3. What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?

FL100

FL80

FL60

FL50

#4. What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF letdown may be flown?

VOR

none

VOR/DME

VHF radio

#5. Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?

It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC

It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft

It does not require any special equipment, apart from a VHF radio, to be installed in the aircraft or on the ground

It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the aircraft

#6. In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to fix an aircraft's position?

When declaring an emergency on any frequency

When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz

On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundary

When contacting ATC to join controlled airapace from the open FIR

#7. An aircraft is ""homing"" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing :

a wind from the west

right drift

zero drift

left drift

#8. Given : Compass heading 270°Deviation 2°WVariation 30°E Relative bearing 316° What is the QDR?

226°

224°

046°

044°

#9. An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is:

NDB: aircraft positionVOR: beacon position

NDB: aircraft positionVOR: aircraft position

NDB: beacon positionVOR: aircraft position

NDB: beacon positionVOR: beacon position

#10. A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?

Two

Six

Four

Eight

#11. Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:

the effect of the Aurora Borealis

skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk

static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band

interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDB

#12. Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:

misalignment of the loop aerial

signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring

skywave/groundwave contamination

signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces

#13. Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB is:

near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles

near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle

inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle

inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles

#14. What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHZ?

800 m

8 m

80 m

8000 m

#15. Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?

Frequency drift at the ground station

Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day

Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night

Mutual interference between aircraft aerials

#16. ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the published protection range should be accurate to within a maximum error of:

+/-2°

+/-5°

+/-2.5°

+/-10°

#17. Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?

300 - 3000 kHz

200 - 1750 kHz

200 - 2000 kHz

255 - 455 kHz

#18. In order to obtain an ADF bearing the:

signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials

mode selector should be switched to 'loop'

BFO switch must be selected to 'ON'

sense aerial must be tuned separately

#19. Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:

coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect

static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system

static interference - station interference - latitude error

height error - station interference - mountain effect

#20. Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?

Coastal effect

Quadrantal error

Precipitation interference

Local thunderstorm activity

#21. The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:

hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON

stop loop rotation

hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal

find the loop 'null' position

#22. An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is :

a beam rotating at 30 Hz

a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz

bi-lobal circular

omnidirectional

#23. Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:

quadrantal error

static interference

uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces

night effect

#24. If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by:

sky wave interference from the same transmitter

sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency

interference from other transmitters

noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the transmitter

#25. An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)

1.5

3.0

4.5

6.0

#26. An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:

210 NM

105 NM

165 NM

50 NM

#27. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?

104° with the FROM flag showing

284° with the FROM flag showing

104° with the TO flag showing

284° with the TO flag showing

#28. An aircraft on a heading of 280°(M) is on a bearing of 090°(M) from a VOR. The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with a 'TO' indication is:

090°

100°

270°

280°

#29. A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:

185°

195°

190°

180°

#30. The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM represents a width of:

2.5 NM

2.0 NM

3.0 NM

3.5 NM

#31. An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E.The aircraft is on VOR radial:

278°

285°

262°

255°

#32. Given:Magnetic heading 280°VOR radial 090°What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a ""TO"" indication?

270°

090°

280°

100°

#33. A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W.An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W.The aircraft is on VOR radial:

180

212

208

360

#34. The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:phase comparison

difference in depth of modulation

beat frequency discrimination

envelope matching

phase comparison

#35. Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?

VHF

SHF

UHF

HF

#36. In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation:

at the aircraft location

at the VOR

at both the VOR and aircraft

at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station

#37. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:

244° with the FROM flag showing

064° with the TO flag showing

064° with the FROM flag showing

244° with the TO flag showing

#38. What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL?

147 NM

156 NM

220 NM

184 NM

#39. An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from the VOR is:Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown

Radial 315°, relative bearing unknown

Radial unknown, relative bearing 045°

Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown

Radial unknown, relative bearing 225°

#40. Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is correct?

The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by 30 Hz each time it rotates

The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude modulation

The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before combining it with the reference signal

The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal by 30 Hz either side of the allocated frequency each time it rotates

#41. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:

151 NM

170 NM

230 NM

190 NM

#42. If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:

constant magnetic track

rhumbline track

great circle track

line of constant bearing

#43. An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of :

110 NM

90 NM

100 NM

120 NM

#44. An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of :

130 NM

135 NM

142 NM

130 NM

#45. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level is approximately:

245 NM

204 NM

183 NM

163 NM

#46. In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?

VHF

UHF

EHF

SHF

#47. The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:

west

north

east

south

#48. An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?

SE

SW

NE

NW

#49. An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?

less than 10°

10° or more

1.5° or more

2.5 or more

#50. An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads : 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly':

left with 'TO' showing

left with 'FROM' showing

right with 'FROM' showing

right with 'TO' showing

#51. Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°.From/To indicator indicates ""TO"".CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right.On what radial is the aircraft?

275

265

95

85

#52. The frequency range of a VOR receiver is :

118 to 135.95 MHz

108 to 135.95 MHz

108 to 117.95 MHz

108 to 111.95 MHz

#53. If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be :330°

210°

030°

330°

150°

#54. The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield from the airfield's VOR. At what maximum theoretical range will it be possible to obtain this information?

123 NM

1230 km

123 km

12.3 NM

#55. Given:Aircraft heading 160°(M),Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR,Selected course on HSI is 250°.The HSI indications are deviation bar:

ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing

behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing

behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing

ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing

#56. A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370, 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:

15 NM

17 NM

16 NM

14 NM

#57. Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?

A VOR station sited on the flight route

An ADF sited on the flight route

A DME station sited across the flight route

A DME station sited on the flight route

#58. In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?

When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transit

When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it

When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM

When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more

#59. The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second. The slant range from the ground transponder was:

330 NM

186 NM

296 NM

165 NM

#60. An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:

DME transmits twin pulses

DME uses the UHF band

the pulse recurrence rates are varied

they are not on the receiver frequency

#61. The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:

329 to 335 MHz

962 to 1213 kHz.

108 to 118 MHz

962 to 1213 MHz

#62. A DME is located at MSL.An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:

6 NM

11 NM

8 NM

7 NM

#63. During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away.The reason for this is that the:

altitude is too high

range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM

aeroplane is below the 'line of sight' altitude

aeroplane is circling around the station

#64. A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:

1000 MHz

100 MHz

100 GHz

10 MHz

#65. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:

SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques

UHF band and is a secondary radar system

VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison

UHF band and is a primary radar system

#66. For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of simultaneous interrogations exceeds:

200

60

80

100

#67. On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates:

airborne equipment failure

the airborne receiver is conducting a range search

ground equipment failure

the airborne equipment is conducting a frequency search

#68. . The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:

transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft

aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed from each other

pulse pairs are discreet to a particular aircraft

pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration

#69. The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:

reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift

aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies

DME pulse recurrence rates are varied

DME transmits twin pulses

#70. The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a range of 100 NM, the maximum systematic error should not exceed:

+ or - 1.5 NM

+ or - 0.25 NM

+ or - 1.25 NM

+ or - 3 NM

#71. ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not exceed:

+ or - 1.25 NM plus 0.25% of the distance measured

+ or - 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measured

+ or - 0.5 NM or 3% of the distance measured whichever is the greater

+ or - 0.25 NM plus 3% of the distance measured up to a maximum of 5 NM

#72. What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to have the same morse code identifier?

600 m

2000 m

60 m

300 m

#73. A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to:

standby mode

search mode

signal controlled search

memory mode

#74. Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation ?

It can provide a magnetic bearing

It can provide DME distance

It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing

It is of no use to civil aviation

#75. A VOR and DME are co-located.You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign.Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:

DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct operation

VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch

DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times

DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once

#76. The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:

3000 Hz, blue

400 Hz, amber

400 Hz, blue

1300 Hz, blue

#77. A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:

200 feet above the inner marker

50 feet above ILS reference point

runway surface

200 feet above the runway threshold

#78. The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is:

heavy precipitation may disturb guidance signals

to increase distance from the runway during offset approach operations

aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signals

to increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility conditions

#79. An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:

will receive signals without identification coding

can expect signals to give correct indications

may receive false course indications

will not normally receive signals

#80. The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually by a series of:

dashes and an amber light flashing

alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing

two dashes per second and a blue light flashing

dots and a white light flashing

#81. The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits on a frequency of:

200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse

75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse

300 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second

75 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second

#82. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?

550 FT/MIN

800 FT/MIN

600 FT/MIN

950 FT/MIN

#83. The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is located 4.6 NM from the threshold. Assuming a glide slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer marker is:

1350 FT

1450 FT

1300 FT

1400 FT

#84. What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centreline

0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the localiser centreline

1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centreline

3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline

0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline

#85. ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:

spurious signals reflected by nearby obstacles

back-scattering of antennas

ground returns ahead of the antennas

multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane

#86. What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?

amber - white - green

white - amber - blue

blue - green - white

blue - amber - white

#87. An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show:

Fly left and fly up

Fly right and fly up

Fly right and fly down

Fly left and fly down

#88. An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:

100 FT/MIN

50 FT/MIN

150 FT/MIN

250 FT/MIN

#89. The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii)..........

(i) the same (ii) modulation frequencies

(i) different (ii) phases

(i) different (ii) modulation frequencies

(i) the same (ii) phases

#90. In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?

VHF

SHF

EHF

UHF

#91. Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit display represent :

2.0 degrees

2.5 degrees

1.5 degrees

0.5 degrees

#92. Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:

3000 Hz

1300 Hz

2000 Hz

400 Hz

#93. Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an approximate:

decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

#94. Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) .......... ° each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) .......... NM from the threshold.

(i) 5 (ii) 8

(i) 25 (ii) 17

(i) 35 (ii) 25

(i) 8 (ii) 10

#95. The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 kt is approximately:

700 FT/MIN

670 FT/MIN

850 FT/MIN

800 FT/MIN

#96. Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated?

On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the extended centreline

At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m along the extended centreline

At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from touchdown on the centreline

At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m from touchdown

#97. A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable guidance information down to:

a maximum height of 200 ft above the runway

a maximum height of 100 ft above the runway

the surface of the runway

a maximum height of 50 ft above the runway

#98. Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?

109.15 MHz

110.20 MHz

108.25 MHz

112.10 MHz

#99. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?

400 FT/MIN

600 FT/MIN

450 FT/MIN

700 FT/MIN

#100. The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°.Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:

left of centre

right of centre

centred

centred with the 'fail' flag showing

#101. The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fanshaped horizontal approach zone which is usually:

+ or - 60° of the runway centre-line

+ or - 50° of the runway centre-line

+ or - 40° of the runway centre-line

+ or - 30° of the runway centre-line

#102. Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?

It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not possible to use an ILS

The installation does not require to have a separate method (marker beacons or DME) to determine range

It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and elevation (azimuth) transmitter

There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be operated because there is an unlimited number of frequency channels available

#103. MLS installations notified for operation, unless otherwise stated, provide azimuth coverage of:

+ or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM

+ or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 10 NM

+ or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 30 NM

+ or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM

#104. In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?

VHF

SHF

UHF

EHF

#105. Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold?

Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar pulses from the MLS station to the aircraft

Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS azimuth and elevation transmissions

Timing the interval between the transmission and reception of primary radar pulses from the aircraft to MLS station

A DME co-located with the MLS transmitters

#106. Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?

Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility

Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, outer and inner marker beacons

Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, outer and middle marker beacons

Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, DME facility

#107. The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is determined by the (i)........ , the maximum unambiguous range by the (ii).........

(i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output

(i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency

(i) pulse length (ii) length of the timebase

(i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency

#108. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the use in primary radar of continuous wave transmissions as compared with pulse transmissions?

The equipment required is more complex in continuous wave radar but this is offset by greater reliability and accuracy

A smaller common transmitter and receiver aerial can be used

It is less effective in short range radars but more effective in long range radars

It eliminates the minimum target reception range

#109. A Primary radar operates on the principle of:

pulse technique

continuous wave transmission

transponder interrogation

phase comparison

#110. The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse:

frequency

amplitude

repetition rate

length

#111. Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is:(pps = pulses per second)

308 pps

375 pps

782 pps

405 pps

#112. The maximum range of primary radar depends on :

frequency

pulse recurrence frequency

wave length

pulse length

#113. For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary radar the power output must be increased by a factor of:

2

8

16

3

#114. The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:

pulse recurrence rate

height of the transmitter above the ground

power output

size of parabolic receiver aerial

#115. Which of the following types of radar systems are most suited for short range operation?

centimetric pulse

millimetric pulse

secondary continuous wave

primary continuous wave

#116. In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and ground based ATC, radar systems operate?

VHF

UHF

SHF

EHF

#117. In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the:

the number of cycles per second

ratio of pulse period to pulse width

delay after which the process re-starts

number of pulses per second

#118. The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the:

transmission power

transmission frequency

pulse recurrence frequency

size of the aerial

#119. In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines:

minimum measurable range

target discrimination

maximum measurable range

beam width

#120. In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines:

beam width

minimum range

target discrimination

maximum theoretical range

#121. In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:

pulse length

aerial rotation rate

beam width

Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)

#122. Which of the following radar equipments operate by means of the pulse technique? 1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar2. Airborne Weather Radar3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar

1, 2, 3 and 4

2, 3 and 4 only

2 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4 only

#123. Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/second)

1333 km

150 km

666 km

333 km

#124. A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:

27 NM

69 NM

270 NM

135 NM

#125. A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:

27 NM

270 NM

67 NM

135 NM

#126. Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates on frequencies in the (i) .......... band employing an antenna that rotates at approximately (ii) .......... revolutions per minute, it is (iii) ......... possible to determine the type of aircraft from the return on the radar screen.

(i) EHF (ii) 100 (iii) never

(i) SHF (ii) 10 (iii) always

(i) SHF (ii) 60 (iii) sometimes

(i) EHF (ii) 30 (iii) never

#127. The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is:(pps = pulses per second)

3240 pps

610 pps

1620 pps

713 pps

#128. Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:

3000

167

6000

330

#129. Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?

long pulse length and wide beam

short pulse length and wide beam

short pulse length and narrow beam

#130. The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:

200 NM

100 NM

300 NM

400 NM

#131. On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the shape, and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return?

Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar (ASMR)

Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)

Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar

#132. Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:

obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam

transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range

detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large

detect the larger water droplets

#133. The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:

give an indication of cloud tops

extend the mapping range

inhibit unwanted ground returns

detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud

#134. In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:

fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NM

fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range

pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM

pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM

#135. Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather beam'?

cirrocumulus

cumulus

stratus

altostratus

#136. . In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant radiation pattern.

MAPPING

CONTOUR

MANUAL

WEATHER

#137. In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) the areas of greatest turbulence are indicated on the screen by:

colour zones being closest together

iso-echo areas which are coloured black

large areas of flashing red colour

blank iso-echo areas where there is no colour

#138. Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?

pitch and yaw

roll and pitch

roll, pitch and yaw

roll and yaw

#139. In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from:

green to red to black

yellow to amber to blue

yellow to orange to red

green to yellow to red

#140. In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from:

green to red to black

yellow to amber to blue

yellow to orange to red

green to yellow to red

#141. A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because:

the larger water droplets will give good echoes and the antenna can be kept relatively small

greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water droplets

less power output is required in the mapping mode

static interference is minimised

#142. In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:

only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel and to protect equipment

unrestrictedly permitted in aerodrome maintenance areas

totally prohibited

permitted anywhere

#143. The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for the determination of ground features:

when approaching coast-lines in polar regions

beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower beam

beyond 100 NM because insufficient antenna tilt angle is available with the mapping mode

beyond 150 NM because the wider beam gives better definition

#144. A frequency of airborne weather radar is :

9375 GHz

9375 MHz

9375 kHz

93.75 MHz

#145. A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:

decrease in area and move to the top of the screen

increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen

increase in area and move to the top of the screen

decrease in area but not change in position on the screen

#146. In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in 'Mapping' mode enables:

better reception of echos on contrasting terrain such as ground to sea

higher definition echoes to be produced giving a clearer picture

a greater radar range to be achieved

scanning of a large ground zone producing echos whose signals are practically independent of distance

#147. In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are:

size of the water drops,diameter of radar scanner

range from cloud,wavelength/frequency used

size of the water drops,wavelength/frequency used

rotational speed of radar scanner,range from cloud

#148. In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height of the aircaft, the tilt control should be set to: (Assume a beam width of 5°)

5° up

2.5° down

0°

2.5° up

#149. When switching on the weather radar, after start-up, a single very bright line appears on the screen.This means that the:

scanning of the cathode ray tube is faulty

receiver is faulty

transmitter is faulty

scanner is not rotating

#150. The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:

have a wide beam and as a consequence better target detection

virtually eliminate lateral lobes and as a consequence concentrate more energy in the main beam

eliminate the need for azimuth slaving

simultaneously transmit weather and mapping beams

#151. Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be detected by weather radar?

dry hail, clear air turbulence

clear air turbulence, turbulence in cloud with precipitation

snow, clear air turbulence

snow, turbulence in clouds with precipitation

#152. Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?

Airborne weather radar (AWR)

Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)

Global Positioning System (GPS)

#153. When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:

height based on QFE

aircraft height based on sub-scale setting

flight level based on 1013.25 hPa

altitude based on regional QNH

#154. The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies: Transmitter Receiver

1090 MHz 1030 MHz

1030 MHz 1030 MHz

1030 MHz 1090 MHz

1090 MHz 1090 MHz

#155. Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?

The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar

The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources

The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources

A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns

#156. In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:

7000

7500

7700

7600

#157. In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:

7000

7600

7500

7700

#158. When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level that is accurate to within:

+ or - 75 FT

+ or - 50 FT

+ or - 25 FT

+ or - 100 FT

#159. The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:

1090 +/- 0.3 Mhz

1120 +/- 0.6 Mhz

1030 +/- 0.2 Mhz

1050 +/- 0.5 Mhz

#160. The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:

continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and collision avoidance using TCAS II

the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic separation between aircraft using TCAS II

collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.

air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillance capability

#161. The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S, contains :

two modes, each of 4096 codes

four modes, each 4096 codes

two modes, each 1024 codes

four modes, each 1024 codes

#162. A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes.These 4096 codes can be used in:

mode A only

mode S

mode C only

all modes

#163. The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of:

amplitude differences

frequency differences

pulses

phase differences

#164. Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to indicate transponder malfunction?

4096

9999

7600

0

#165. Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required?

7000

5000

0

2000

#166. What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes?

4096

760

3600

1000

#167. Which of the following equipments works on the interrogator/transponder principle?

Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar

Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)

Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)

Global Positioning System (GPS)

#168. In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:

7000

7600

7700

7500

#169. The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

an emergency

transponder malfunction

entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required

unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight

#170. The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

an emergency

unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight

radio communication failure

transponder malfunction

#171. The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

an emergency

unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight

transponder malfunction

radio communication failure

#172. The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight

radio communication failure

transponder malfunction

an emergency

#173. ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:

outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids

within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these

outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid

within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid

#174. Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of:

1.0 NM standard deviation or better

0.5 NM standard deviation or better

0.25 NM standard deviation or better

1.5 NM standard deviation or better

#175. Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:

+/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time

+/- 2NM or better for 75% of the flight time

+/- 3NM or better for 90% of the flight time

+/- 5NM or better throughout the flight

#176. Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in red on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:

warnings, flight envelope and system limits

cautions and abnormal sources, engaged modes

warnings, cautions and abnormal sources

flight envelope and system limits, engaged modes

#177. Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in amber/yellow on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:

engaged modes

warnings

flight envelope and system limits

cautions, abnormal sources

#178. Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in green on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:

engaged modes

the ILS deviation pointer

cautions, abnormal sources

the earth

#179. Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), indicate:

flight envelope and system limits

the sky

engaged modes

the flight director bar(s)

#180. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), current data and values are coloured:

red

white

cyan

magenta

#181. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), armed modes are coloured:

amber/yellow

green

white

magenta

#182. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), selected data and values are coloured:

yellow

magenta

green

white

#183. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), a selected heading is coloured:

magenta

yellow

green

white

#184. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), the active route/flight plan is coloured:

cyan

green

yellow

magenta

#185. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of precipititation are coloured in the order:

amber/yellow, magenta, black

green, red, magenta, black

black, amber/yellow, magenta, red

green, amber/yellow, red, magenta

#186. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), turbulence is coloured:

black

white or magenta

red

cyan

#187. Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between 2 en-route waypoints from a RNAV equipment?

ETO

ATA

Elapsed time on route.

ETD

#188. Radar returns, on a B737-400, can be displayed on all Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) screen modes of an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) WITH THE EXCEPTION OF:

EXP VOR/ ILS, PLAN and MAP

FULL NAV, FULL VOR/ILS and PLAN

FULL NAV, PLAN and MAP

FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN

#189. The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:

the computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, GPS etc)

the same as that given on the No. 1 IRS

the actual position of the aircraft at any point in time

another source of aircaft position, it is independent of other position sources (IRS, Radio, ILS etc)

#190. The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:

corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during turns

indicates that the pilot has made a manual track selection

indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is being flown

represents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it co-incides with the desired track, wind influence is compensated for

#191. In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at destination calculated by the Flight Management Computer (FMC) be correct?

When the FMC computes each ETO and ETA using the correct GS

When the FMC positions and GS are accurate

When the actual winds match the forecast winds, and the actual cruising Mach number is equal to the FMC calculated Mach number

When the ETOs and ETA are based on the forecast winds calculated from the actual takeoff time

#192. Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes?

VOR/VOR

NDB/VOR

VOR/DME

DME/DME

#193. Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-contained and obtains no external information?

Magnetic heading

VOR/DME radial/distance

Pressure altitude

Inertial Navigation System (INS) position

#194. Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?

Pressure altitude

Inertial Navigation System (INS) position

Magnetic heading

VOR/DME radial/distance

#195. In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air Data input?

True airspeed

Inertial Navigation System (INS) position

Doppler drift

VOR/DME radial/distance

#196. In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR into an RNAV, the VOR:

must be in range

does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used

does not have to be in range when entered or used

has to be positively identified by one of the pilots

#197. Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?

Wind velocity

True airspeed, drift angle

Aircraft position in latitude and longitude

Crosstrack distance, alongtrack distance, angular course deviation

#198. Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?

Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'

Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'

Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'

Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'

#199. Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DMEbased Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station':

when the Phantom Station is out of range

when operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception range from the reference station

because, under adverse conditions (relative bearing to the Phantom Station other than 180°/360°) it takes the computer more time to calculate the necessary information

when in the cone of silence overhead the Phantom Station

#200. What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot basic RNAV system in the en-route mode?

10 NM

2 NM

5 NM

1 NM

#201. What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using an 2-dot RNAV system in the approach mode?

10°

0.5 NM

10 NM

0.5°

#202. Which of the following is one of the functions of the Course-Line-Computer in a basic Area Navigation (RNAV) system?

It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme

It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and distance indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint

It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav-Mode and continues working by memory in case one of the two necessary station goes off the air

It calculates cross track information for NDB approacheS

#203. In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation is provided by:

Flight Management ComputerAircraft Mapping RadarNavigation radios

Inertial Reference SystemsNavigation radiosTrue airspeed and drift inputs

Inertial Reference SystemsAircraft Mapping RadarNavigation radios

Navigation radiosFlight Management ComputerInertial Reference Systems

#204. How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a B737-400 respond to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver?

It removes the associated magenta deviation bar and/or pointer from the display

The pointer flashes and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears

The deviation bar and/or pointer change colour to red and flash intermittently

The pointer rotates around the display and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears

#205. Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System generates the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?

Navigation database

Flight Control Computer

Symbol Generator

Flight Management Computer

#206. An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when:

the transmitter moves away from the receiver

the receiver moves towards the transmitter

the transmitter moves towards the receiver

both transmitter and receiver move towards each other

#207. The Doppler Navigation System is based on:

radio waves refraction in the ionosphere

radar principles using frequency shift

phase comparison from ground station transmissions

doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation System

#208. Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:

both transmitter and receiver move away from each other

the transmitter moves toward the reciever

the transmitter moves away from the reciever

the transmitter and receiver move towards each other

#209. Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C is correct?

It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of range measurement by phase comparison

It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of differential range by pulse technique

It is a navigation system based on simultaneous ranges being received from a minimum of four ground stations

It is a navigation system based on secondary radar principles, position lines are obtained in sequence from up to eight ground stations

#210. In which navigation system does the master station transmit a continuous string of pulses on a frequency close to 100 kHz?

Loran C

Doppler

GPS

Decca

#211. Which of the following correctly gives the principle of operation of the Loran C navigation system?

Phase comparison between synchronised transmissions

Differential range by phase comparison

Differential range by pulse technique

Frequency shift between synchronised transmissions

#212. Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation system?

90 - 110 kHz

978 - 1213 MHz

1750 - 1950 kHz

10.2 - 13.6 kHz

#213. Loran C coverage is:

confined to certain limited areas of the world

global

unrestricted over the oceans and adjacent coastlines but limited over the major continental land masses

unrestricted between latitudes 70°N and 70°S

#214. n a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:

the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a known position

the aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a minimum number of satellites

timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to reach and return from a satellite in a known position

timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the aircraft's receiver

#215. In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?

SHF

UHF

VHF

EHF

#216. What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?

4

3

5

6

#217. What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation?

3

4

5

2

#218. Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is:

5

6

7

4

#219. Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is:

5

3

6

4

#220. Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?

Satellite mutual interference, frequency drift, satellite to ground time lag

Satellite clock, satellite ephemeris, atmospheric propagation

Satellite mutual interference, satellite ephemeris, atmospheric propagation

Satellite to ground time lag, atmospheric propagation, satellite clock

#221. In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by:

measuring the time taken for an aircraft's transmissions to travel to a number of satellites, in known positions, and return to the aircraft's receiver

measuring the pulse lengths of signals received from a minimum number of satellites received in a specific sequential order

the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received from a number of satellites in known positions

measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites' transmissions, in known positions, to reach the aircraft's receiver

#222. GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals. Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?

L2-for communications purpose

L1-precise (P)

L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A)

L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)

#223. Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?

ED 87

ED 50

EUREF 92

WGS 84

#224. Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?

Latitude and longitude

Latitude, longitude and altitude

Latitude, longitude and time

Latitude, longitude, altitude and time

#225. Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in air navigation?

NNSS-Transit and GLONASS

NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS

GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT

NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit

#226. The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:

3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane

6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane

6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a geostationary orbital plane

4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane

#227. Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct?

It is greatest at the equator

It is the same throughout the globe

It varies, depending on the time and observer's location

It is greatest at the poles

#228. How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?

24

12

18

30

#229. GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible acording to user (civil or military).Commercial aviation uses:

only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and one code

only the 1 227 MHz carrier wave and one code

the two carrier waves and one public code

only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and two codes

#230. Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?

GLONASS

NNSS-Transit

COSPAS-SARSAT

NAVSTAR/GPS

#231. The basic elements of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the:

control, space and user segments

atomic clock, power supply and transponder

main control station, the monitoring station and the ground antennas

antenna, the receiver and the central control unit (CDU)

#232. One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:

manufacture and launch the satellites

manipulate the signals of selected satellites to reduce the precision of the position fix

monitor the status of the satellites

grant and monitor user authorisations

#233. The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:

transmit signals which, from the time taken, are used to determine the distance to the satellite

select appropriate satellites automatically, to track the signals and to measure the time taken by signals from the satellites to reach the receiver

to monitor the status of the satellites, determine their positions and to measure the time

monitor the orbital planes of the satellites

#234. One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/ GPS is to:

monitor the satellites' orbits and status

compute the user position from the received user messages and to transmit the computed position back to the user segment

transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to determine time, position and velocity

transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the orbital planes autonomously

#235. The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:

a geoid

a sphere

an ellipsoid

a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth

#236. In civil aviation, the height value computed by the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is the:

geometric height above ground

flight level

height above Mean Sea Level (MSL)

height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid

#237. In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term 'inclination' denotes the angle between the:

horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a satellite

orbital plane and the earth's axis

horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a satellite

orbital plane and the equatorial plane

#238. How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?

Approximately 24 hours (one sidereal day)

Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day)

12 days

365 days because the satellites are located in a geostationary orbit

#239. At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?

20200 km

19500 km

10900 km

36000 km

#240. he orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:

inclined 55° to the equatorial plane

parallel to the equatorial plane

inclined 90° to the equatorial plane

inclined 55° to the earth axis

#241. In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?

VHF

UHF

EHF

SHF

#242. In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?

PRN is the atmospheric jamming that affects the signals transmitted by the satellites

PRN describes the continuous electro-magnetical background noise that exists in space

PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites and the measurement of the time taken by the signal to reach the receiver

PRN occurs in the receiver. It is caused by the signal from one satellite being received from different directions (multipath effect)

#243. Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?

C/A- and P

P

C/A

P and Y

#244. Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the:

assignment of received PRN-codes (Pseudo Random Noise) to the appropriate satellite

recognition wether Selective Availability (SA) is operative

fast identification of received signals coming from visible satellites

correction of receiver clock error

#245. How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?

The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received and compares this information with the calculated positions of the satellites

Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual Pseudo Random Noise code

Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency

The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite

#246. Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?

data to correct receiver clock error, almanac data

time, data to impair the accuracy of the position fix

almanac data, satellite status information

time, positions of the satellites

#247. In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?

12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)

24 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)

25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)

12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame)

#248. Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?

The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes

The lower frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes

The higher frequency is only used to transmit the P code

C/A and P codes are transmitted at different times on both frequencies

#249. Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?

Receiver noise

Ionospheric

Tropospheric

Multipath

#250. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the principle behind the correction of one of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system errors by the transmission of the signals on two frequencies (L1 and L2)?

The effect of receiver noise can be reduced due to the interference of both frequencies

The effect of signal reflections (multipath effect) can be reduced due to the interference of both frequencies

The path delay of the signals in the earth atmosphere is proportional to the inverse of the carrier frequency squared

The influence of shadowing on the GPS signals is proportional to the inverse of the carrier frequency squared

#251. Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of the term 'Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?

It is the ability of the GPS satellites to check the integrity of the data transmitted by the monitoring stations of the ground segment

It is a technique whereby the receivers of the world-wide distributed monitor stations (ground segment) automatically determines the integrity of the navigation message

It is a technique by which a receiver ensures the integrity of the navigation information

It is a method whereby a receiver ensures the integrity of the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code transmitted by the satellites

#252. The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:

determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise code multiplied by the speed of light

calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies

determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite multiplied by the speed of light

calculated, using the WGS-84 reference system, from the known positions of the satellite and the receiver

#253. In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, 'All in View' is a term used when a receiver:

is tracking more than the required 4 satellites and can instantly replace any lost signal with another already being monitored

requires the signals of all visible satellites for navigation purposes

is receiving the signals of all visible satellites but tracking only those of the 4 with the best geometric coverage

is receiving and tracking the signals of all 24 operational satellites simultaneously

#254. The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the:

calculated range includes receiver clock error

calculated range is based on an idealised Keplerian orbit

measured distance is based on the Pseudo Random Noise code

movement of satellite and receiver during the distance calculation is not taken into account

#255. What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for use on board an aircraft?

Multiplex

Sequential

Any hand held type

Multichannel

#256. What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?

5

24

3

4

#257. The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:

on the upper side of the fuselage in the vicinity of the centre of gravity

in the vicinity of the receiver to avoid long transmission lines

under the fuselage in order to receive correction data transmitted by D-GPS stations

inside the tail fin to minimise the influence of reflections from the wing and fuselage

#258. In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Selective Availability' (SA) gives the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by :

using a less accurate atomic clock in a satellite for signal processing

offsetting satellite atomic clocks by a predetermined constant amount

dithering the satellite clock

shutting off selected satellites

#259. In the event of the use of Selective Availability, how does this affect, if at all, the navigation accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system ?

It degrades position accuracy by manipulating satellite signals

It increases because only signals from satellites in the most suitable geometric constellation are selected by the receiver

It degrades accuracy by reducing the number of available satellites

It has no influence because, by selecting of the most suitable signals, the computing process in the receiver is quicker

#260. In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:

can be minimised by synchronisation of the receiver clock with the satellite clocks

is negligible small because of the great accuracy the atomic clocks installed in the satellites

is corrected by using signals from four satellites

is the biggest part of the total error, it cannot be corrected

#261. The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is:

negligible

minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and comparing signals transmitted by the satellites

minimised by computing the average of all signals

only significant if the satellites are located at a small elevation angle above the horizon

#262. Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system (INS)?

The activation of 'Selective Availability' can be recognised by the INS

The average position calculated from data provided by both systems increases overall accuracy

The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INS

The only advantage of coupling both systems is double redundancy

#263. What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?

The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using an algorithm and information from unaffected signals

It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected

It causes multipath propagation

It may prevent the reception of signals

#264. Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?

3 satellites with an azimuth of 120° from each other and an elevation of 45° above the horizon

3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an azimuth of 120° from each other together with a fourth directly overhead

4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and a low elevation above the horizon

4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and an elevation of 45° above the horizon

#265. n relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in the differential technique (D-GPS)?

Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit correction data to a suitable receiver on the aircraft

The difference between signals transmitted on the L1 and L2 frequencies are processed by the receiver to determine an error correction

Receivers from various manufacturers are operated in parallel to reduce the characteristical receiver noise error

Signals from satellites are received by 2 different antennas which are located a fixed distance apart. This enables a suitable receiver on the aircraft to recognise and correct for multipath errors

#266. Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?

Only D-GPS allows position fixes accurate enough for 'Non Precision Approaches'

The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station, the more accurate the position fix

A D-GPS receiver can detect and correct for SA providing a more accurate position fix

The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the receiver position in relation to a D-GPS ground station

#267. How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?

The data is determined by the satellite and transmitted together with the navigation message

The data is stored in the receiver together with the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code

The data is based on the direction to the satellite determined at the location of the antenna

It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the satellites

#268. In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a:

procedure performed by the receiver to recognise new satellites becoming operational

continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the GPS satellites

procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is no stored satellite data available

continuous procedure performed by the receiver that searches the sky for satellites rising above the horizon

#269. What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not available?

A constant heading and speed must be flown until the required number of satellites are again available

The flight may be continued as planned if at least 4 satellites are available and the pilot monitors the GPS-System manually

The flight may be continued using other certificated navigation systems

The flight has to be continued under VFR conditions

#270. Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system?

Multi-sensor systems are not certificated for flights under IFR conditions

The prescribed IFR-equipment must be installed and operational

The prescribed IFR-equipment must be in working correctly and the navigation information continuously displayed

The RAIM-function of the GPS receiver must be able to monitor all prescribed navigation systems

#271. Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, on a flight under IFR conditions using a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver, the position fix obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position of conventional navigation systems by an unacceptable amount?

It may be continued using conventional navigation systems

It may be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS, prior to the next flight all systems must be checked

The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and correct the error or switch off the faulty system

It must be continued under VFR conditions

#272. What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?

GPS altitude

If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS, otherwise barometric altitude

Barometric altitude

Radar altitude

Dgca Question Bank For Pilots

Results

#1. What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL130 could receive information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL?

#2. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325 FT above MSL is:

#3. What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?

#4. What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF letdown may be flown?

#5. Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?

#6. In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to fix an aircraft's position?

#7. An aircraft is ""homing"" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing :

#8. Given : Compass heading 270°Deviation 2°WVariation 30°E Relative bearing 316° What is the QDR?

#9. An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is:

#10. A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?

#11. Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:

#12. Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:

#13. Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB is:

#14. What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHZ?

#15. Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?

#16. ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the published protection range should be accurate to within a maximum error of:

#17. Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?

#18. In order to obtain an ADF bearing the:

#19. Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:

#20. Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?

#21. The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:

#22. An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is :

#23. Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:

#24. If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by:

#25. An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)

#26. An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:

#27. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?

#28. An aircraft on a heading of 280°(M) is on a bearing of 090°(M) from a VOR. The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with a 'TO' indication is:

#29. A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:

#30. The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM represents a width of:

#31. An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E.The aircraft is on VOR radial:

#32. Given:Magnetic heading 280°VOR radial 090°What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a ""TO"" indication?

#33. A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W.An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W.The aircraft is on VOR radial:

#34. The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:phase comparison

#35. Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?

#36. In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation:

#37. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:

#38. What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL?

#39. An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from the VOR is:Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown

#40. Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is correct?

#41. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:

#42. If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:

#43. An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of :

#44. An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of :

#45. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level is approximately:

#46. In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?

#47. The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:

#48. An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?

#49. An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?

#50. An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads : 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly':

#51. Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°.From/To indicator indicates ""TO"".CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right.On what radial is the aircraft?

#52. The frequency range of a VOR receiver is :

#53. If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be :330°

#54. The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield from the airfield's VOR. At what maximum theoretical range will it be possible to obtain this information?

#55. Given:Aircraft heading 160°(M),Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR,Selected course on HSI is 250°.The HSI indications are deviation bar:

#56. A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370, 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:

#57. Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?

#58. In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?

#59. The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second. The slant range from the ground transponder was:

#60. An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:

#61. The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:

#62. A DME is located at MSL.An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:

#63. During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away.The reason for this is that the:

#64. A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:

#65. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:

#66. For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of simultaneous interrogations exceeds:

#67. On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates:

#68. . The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:

#69. The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:

#70. The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a range of 100 NM, the maximum systematic error should not exceed:

#71. ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not exceed:

#72. What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to have the same morse code identifier?

#73. A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to:

#74. Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation ?

#75. A VOR and DME are co-located.You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign.Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:

#76. The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:

#77. A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:

#78. The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is: