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INDIGO AIR LAW

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#1. An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised ?

#2. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes,

#3. The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the :

#4. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of :

#5. One of the main objectives of ICAO is to :

#6. Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption ?

#7. The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:

#8. Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ?

#9. The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:

#10. Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denounciation shall take effect :

#11. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law

#12. Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed

#13. The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is :

#14. ""Cabotage"" refers to:

#15. The second freedom of the air is the :

#16. The first freedom of the air is:

#17. The convention which deals with offences againts penal law, is

#18. The convention of Tokyo applies to damage :

#19. The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the :

#20. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with :

#21. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is :

#22. Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by :

#23. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the

#24. The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes :

#25. The loading limitations shall include :

#26. The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by :

#27. The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated :

#28. The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by :

#29. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example

#30. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example

#31. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example

#32. The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be

#33. The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be

#34. The profeciency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous profeciency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new profeciency check can be and can't exceed:

#35. designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:

#36. When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorization:

#37. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity?

#38. You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL

#39. The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is :

#40. To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is :

#41. The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is :

#42. 10.4.0.0 (43) If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed :

#43. The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than :

#44. The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than :

#45. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold

#46. Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.

#47. The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be :

#48. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred are :

#49. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :

#50. An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as copilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively :

#51. The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively :

#52. An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than

#53. An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :

#54. The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of :

#55. An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively

#56. In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed :

#57. The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date :

#58. When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorization

#59. When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from :

#60. Type ratings shall be established

#61. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:

#62. For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night

#63. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:

#64. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :

#65. The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is :

#66. At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.

#67. More than 12 hours

#68. According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for

#69. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least:

#70. According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for :

#71. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours :

#72. According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including :

#73. . According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has :

#74. According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date :

#75. According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for :

#76. Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?

#77. . Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?

#78. If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing ?

#79. If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received ?

#80. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:

#81. On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:

#82. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:

#83. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight can not enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than :

#84. The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:

#85. Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ?

#86. An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least:

#87. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""B"" above 10 000 feet MSL are :

#88. . The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""G"" above 10 000 feet MSL are :

#89. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:

#90. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode ""A""

#91. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:

#92. Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft ""YOU MAY PROCEED"" ?

#93. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained byan aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?

#94. Aircraft ""A"" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft ""B"" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?

#95. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?

#96. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?

#97. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

#98. An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is:

#99. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means

#100. Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service:

#101. When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case :

#102. Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight :

#103. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light

#104. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that :

#105. An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:

#106. An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than

#107. VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are :

#108. During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will :

#109. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraftThe signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructionsYou should :

#110. Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft :

#111. Given:AGL = above ground levelAMSL = above mean sea levelFL = flight levelwithin uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels:

#112. An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:

#113. While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :

#114. While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal : a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :

#115. An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must :

#116. What does the abbreviation OIS mean?

#117. What does the abbreviation DER mean?

#118. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of :

#119. A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away.The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are:

#120. If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:

#121. In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?

#122. . In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:

#123. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the aligment of the runway centre line within:

#124. Turning departures provide track guidance within

#125. We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within

#126. Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will:

#127. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?

#128. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:

#129. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:

#130. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:

#131. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?

#132. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a:

#133. If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to :

#134. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:

#135. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a :

#136. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until :1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be madeThe combination regrouping all the correct answers is :

#137. During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is:

#138. In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:

#139. How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure.

#140. Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence?

#141. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?

#142. In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for:

#143. In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for:

#144. In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:

#145. In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:

#146. In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than:

#147. In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than:

#148. Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

#149. Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:

#150. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?

#151. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:

#152. It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure:

#153. When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:

#154. A circling approach is:

#155. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:

#156. If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken ?

#157. What action should be taken if contact is los with the aerodrome on the down wind leg ?

#158. Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than :

#159. Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approavh procedure?

#160. On a non-precision approach a so-called ""straight-in-approach"" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is :

#161. Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is :

#162. The primary area of an instrument approach segment is :

#163. In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least :

#164. During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to :

#165. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :

#166. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :

#167. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is :

#168. Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:

#169. The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is :

#170. In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:

#171. For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than :

#172. A ""precision approach"" is a direct instrument approach...

#173. Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:

#174. What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?

#175. In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a :

#176. Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed ?

#177. Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?

#178. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?

#179. You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure.

#180. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

#181. In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:

#182. Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:

#183. How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area?

#184. In a standard holding pattern turns are made :

#185. Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?

#186. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:

#187. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:

#188. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:

#189. The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported :

#190. During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as

#191. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

#192. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:

#193. At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set?

#194. The transition level:

#195. The transition level:

#196. What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?

#197. When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:

#198. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:

#199. The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:

#200. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:

#201. Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless: a) Requested by ATC.

#202. When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:

#203. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?

#204. Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320.In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code :

#205. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if

#206. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:

#207. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:

#208. ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as:

#209. Aerodrome traffic is:

#210. Air Traffic Service unit means:

#211. Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Sercice (AFIS) :

#212. An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurence or expected occurence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is

#213. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?

#214. Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?

#215. Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:

#216. Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:

#217. A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:

#218. A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:

#219. The units providing Air Traffic Services are:

#220. The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service

#221. Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:

#222. To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E /

#223. An air traffic control unit :

#224. The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done :

#225. Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of

#226. Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus

#227. Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of

#228. Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed

#229. What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?

#230. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :

#231. The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :

#232. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :

#233. The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is :

#234. Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in :

#235. The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is :

#236. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds

#237. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds

#238. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as :

#239. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as

#240. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as :

#241. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Trafic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as

#242. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified

#243. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as

#244. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:

#245. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:

#246. You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence expires at 0920. What does it mean ?

#247. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:

#248. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

#249. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

#250. The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

#251. The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

#252. When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:

#253. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft ""on track"" uses DME stations, is:

#254. An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected ?

#255. What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft

#256. When are ATIS broadcasts updated ?

#257. The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed

#258. Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated

#259. Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated

#260. Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsability of

#261. ATIS broadcast

#262. Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes :

#263. Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:

#264. ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are :

#265. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the:

#266. The Alerting Service is provided by:

#267. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:

#268. A radio communications, ""Distress"" differs from ""Urgency"" because in the first case

#269. Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?

#270. When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of:

#271. Alert phase is defined as follows:

#272. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of :

#273. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of :

#274. The rule governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane engaged in the public transport of passengers:

#275. The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control centre):

#276. A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:

#277. If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall:

#278. The pilot in command of an aircraft:1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC.2 - is responsible only if he is the ""pilot flying"".3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction.5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance.Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

#279. A strayed aircraft is :

#280. ""ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC"" is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima. Whenever separation minima is not applied. The following flights are considered essential traffic one to each other.

#281. When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached:1 He must inform the control unit (""cancel IFR"")2 He must request and obtain clearance.3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan.4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan.The correct combination of statements is:

#282. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

#283. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:

#284. Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)?

#285. The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed:

#286. Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance? a) The pilot in command

#287. . Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to IFR?

#288. Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR?

#289. In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when:

#290. A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:

#291. Change from IFR to VFR will always take place :

#292. A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections.In section I the pilot fills in :

#293. The letter ""L"" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:

#294. If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form

#295. The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:

#296. The ""estimated total time"" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time :

#297. Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication failure?

#298. Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:

#299. Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:

#300. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:

#301. The ""VMC and own separation"" ATC clearance is used for a controlled flight to cross the level of another controlled flight when:

#302. Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:

#303. What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC?

#304. The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace below FL 290 is:

#305. The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is:

#306. Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:

#307. Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller:""Turn immediately, continue heading 050° until further advised"".Time now is 18:36 UTC. At 18:37 UTC you find out that radio communication cannot be stablished again and you have to return to your current flight plan route:

#308. Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is:

#309. The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft ""on track"" uses DME stations, is:

#310. A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspaced classified as:

#311. One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:

#312. Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:

#313. The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called :

#314. What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?

#315. Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)

#316. Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible

#317. Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend

#318. Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by :

#319. When the Mach number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is :

#320. Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilizes ""on Track"" DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is :

#321. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be

#322. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be

#323. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be

#324. Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and :

#325. The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how many miles radius from the navigation facility upon which the instrument approach procedure is predicated:

#326. . ""Time Approach Procedure"" is used as necessary to expedite the approach of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained requesting aircraft:

#327. During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the pilot should contact departure control:

#328. A so called ""Visual Approach"" can be performed :

#329. An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :

#330. The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is :

#331. . Which statement is correct ?During a ""Visual Approach"" in Controlled Airspace (Classe C):

#332. If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction

#333. For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft:

#334. For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced:

#335. If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions

#336. At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is :

#337. At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is :

#338. At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is :

#339. During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:

#340. A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :

#341. A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :

#342. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that :

#343. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than :

#344. . Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least :

#345. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for :

#346. Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that : the missed approach track for one approach diverges by :

#347. When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi holding positions have not been established, aircraft shall not be held closer to the runway in use more than:

#348. Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct?

#349. Which statement regarding approach control service is correct ?

#350. A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is :

#351. Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation :

#352. Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class :

#353. In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft ?

#354. According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic :

#355. A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by :

#356. Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service:

#357. A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is :

#358. In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway ?

#359. Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are:

#360. Alerting service shall be provided:

#361. What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ?

#362. Where a ""Secondary Surveillance Radar"" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures:

#363. Which code shall be used on Mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference?

#364. Which does ATC Term ""Radar contact"" signify?

#365. What is meant when departure control instruct you to ""resume own navigation"" after you have been vectored to an airway?

#366. An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by:

#367. The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:

#368. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:

#369. An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last:

#370. When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:

#371. Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:

#372. The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed:

#373. Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to ""resume own navigation"". This phrase means that:

#374. The Air Traffic control Services : do not prevent collisions with terrain.

#375. Which code shall be used on mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft?

#376. One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:

#377. The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:

#378. When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:

#379. One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:

#380. Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:

#381. When ""Secondary Radar"" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:

#382. When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:

#383. The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:

#384. The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be:

#385. The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:

#386. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:

#387. The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion):

#388. An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:

#389. When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restorage is impossible, than :

#390. The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?

#391. Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than :

#392. Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway.Identification has to be achieved within :

#393. Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than :

#394. During radar-control, a ""radar-controller"" shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the ""tower-controller"" has not issued a ""landing-clearance"" at the moment the aircraft is :

#395. When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of :

#396. The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each

#397. Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of :

#398. An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of :

#399. An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the :

#400. What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach ?

#401. When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: ""fly heading 030"", the pilot must fly heading:

#402. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?

#403. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refuelling facilities and limitations on refuelling services?

#404. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas?

#405. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:

#406. A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is:

#407. Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:

#408. The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published :

#409. In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with ""location indicators""?

#410. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements

#411. The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by :

#412. In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of

#413. Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.

#414. Operationaly significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with :

#415. A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of :

#416. The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is

#417. Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts

#418. Which information is not included in Instrument Appraoch Charts (IAC) in the AIP

#419. ASHTAM

#420. AIRAC

#421. AIP Supplements

#422. The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are :

#423. The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part :

#424. The informations concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation Services are on the following part of the AIP

#425. The informations on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following part of the AIP

#426. An AIRAC is :

#427. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?

#428. ""Instrument runways"" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.

#429. ""Code letter D"" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be:

#430. ""TODA"" take-off distance available is:

#431. ""Clearway"" is defined rectangular area established to:

#432. Which ""code letter"" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?

#433. According to the ""Aerodrome Reference Code"", the ""Code Letter E"" shall identify an aircraft wing span of:

#434. In the ""Aerodrome Reference Code"" the code element 2 shall identify:

#435. The ""Aerodrome Reference Code"" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:

#436. According with the ""Aerodrome Reference Code"" the ""Code number 4"" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of:

#437. The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:

#438. ""ASDA"" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:

#439. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?

#440. Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:

#441. Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:

#442. The light shown by an ""Aerodrome Identification Beacon"" at a land aerodrome shall be:

#443. In the ""VASIS"" , how many light units are in each wing bar?

#444. In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:

#445. How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI?

#446. Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:

#447. In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:

#448. The abbreviation PAPI stands for:

#449. The ""PAPI"" shall consist of:

#450. In the ""PAPI"" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:

#451. In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented:

#452. Taxiway edge lights shall be:

#453. Runway end lights shall be:

#454. Runway threshold lights shall be:

#455. Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration :

#456. Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light system?

#457. What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II :

#458. What is a ""barrette""?

#459. A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to:

#460. When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at :

#461. Runway-lead-in lighting should consist :

#462. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system?

#463. High intensity obstacle lights should be:

#464. Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:

#465. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:

#466. The runway edge lights shall be :

#467. The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:

#468. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is :

#469. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is :

#470. A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a cargo manifest shall, apart from the information indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than the following item(s) :

#471. Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are :

#472. In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in schedule international services, and which are making flights across the territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance notification. This information is to be received :

#473. An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty.

#474. Which one of the statements is correct :

#475. When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure, the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as far in advance as possible and:

#476. The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State of destination

#477. When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their intended destination but are unladen at another international airport, the contracting state where the unlading takes place, if satisfied that there has been no gross negligence or careless by the operator

#478. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to :

#479. Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply with the documentary procedures as prescribed :

#480. Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing through the territory of a contracting state and has to stay in that contracting state until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the contracting state where the international airport is located shall permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival when

#481. The documents for entry and departure of aircraft :

#482. When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator :

#483. In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is required of him, contracting states

#484. The units responsable for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service are:

#485. Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident.-aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and Rescue Centre-aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre-aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopterThe command of the situation is the responsibility of,

#486. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:

#487. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:

#488. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:

#489. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:

#490. Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency?

#491. An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to find the survivors of an aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an ""X"".This indicates :

#492. At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must :

#493. For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as :

#494. Aeronautical part

#495. The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, world be retained, unless its departure is justified to protect lives.

#496. The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by :

#497. Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. The said appropriate authority :

#498. Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken

#499. When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed

#500. Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply :

#501. When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon :

#502. Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below :

#503. Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure.

#504. Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initation of an accident investigation?

#505. Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state of occurrence for participation, the state of design and the state of manufacture shall in the case of an accident or serious incident inform the state of occurence of the name of its representative to be present at the investigation when the aircraft :

#506. Which statement is correct?

Finish
INDIGO AIR LAW
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