MISCELLANEOUS – Air – DGCA Question Bank For Politics

#1. Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:

70% of the landing distance available.

60% of the landing distance available.

80% of the landing distance available.

50% of the landing distance available.

#2. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

only during take off and landing.

only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety.

from take off to landing.

while at their station.

#3. Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a operations manual and also issue the amendments to keep it up to date?

Aircraft producer.

Owner of the aircraft.

ATS authority of the state of registry.

Aircraft operator.

#4. The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less than :3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days

6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days

6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months

3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days

3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months

#5. The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least :

60 minutes.

30 minutes.

15 minutes.

2 hours.

#6. A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than :

100 NM

200 NM

50 NM

400 NM

#7. On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to :

400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed.

300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed.

200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed.

100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed.

#8. The minimum time track is a track defined for :

a period of 12 hours

a period of 24 hours

a given travel

aircraft flying in MNPS airspace

#9. The term decision height (DH) is used for :

a conventional approach.

an indirect approach.

a precision approach.

a conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver.

#10. Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (Annex 6, Part I)

The operator.

The captain.

The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot.

The company's cargo technicians.

#11. For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that : (Annex 6, Part I)

Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.

Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.

Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.

Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.

#12. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are: (Annex 6, Part I)

At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

#13. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)

The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.

Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.

All the flight crew be on board.

Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board.

#14. The operator will include in the operations manual a list of minimum required equipment approved by : (Annex 6, Part I)

The country where the aircraft was manufactured.

The country of the operator.

The country where the aircraft is operated.

It is not mandatory that such a book be approved by aviation authorities.

#15. Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped: (Annex 6, Part I)

Only as is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights.

With more anti-icing and/or de-icing devices (if one expects icy conditions).

As is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights, and such aircraft must also possess indicators of attitude and course, along with a precise barometric altimeter.

As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument flight rules.

#16. The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :

the manufacturer

the operator

the aircraft manufacturer's list

the aircraft state of registry

#17. The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :

the operator.

the aircraft manufacture'rs list.

the manufacturer.

the aircraft state of registry.

#18. The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of :

140°.

110°.

70°.

220°.

#19. Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last :

30 hours of operation.

flight.

25 hours of operation.

48 hours of operation.

#20. For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last :

25 hours of operation.

flight.

30 minutes of operation.

48 hours of operation.

#21. On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than :

12 000 ft

13 000 ft

11 000 ft

10 000 ft

#22. On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is between :

10 000 ft and 12 000 ft

10 000 ft and 13 000 ft

11 000 ft and 13 000 ft

11 000 ft and 12 000 ft

#23. On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurization, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than :

11 000 ft.

12 000 ft.

10 000 ft.

13 000 ft.

#24. For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than :

13 000 ft

29 000 ft

10 000 ft

25 000 ft

#25. A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off gross weight is greater than :

14 000 kg

20 000 kg

5 700 kg

27 000 kg

#26. The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight and located at the rear of the aircraft, is :

110°

140°

70°

220°

#27. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will first see the :

red steady light

white steady light

green flashing light

green steady light

#28. The JAR-OPS is based on :

The air transport rules

The Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR)

ICAO Appendix 6

A JAA guideline

#29. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right right, will first see the :

green steady light

red steady light

white steady light

green flashing light

#30. The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located at the tip of the left wing is :

140°

70°

110°

220°

#31. For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of :

0.6

0.7

0.5

0.8

#32. For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on at alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of :

0.5

0.6

0.7

0.8

#33. The validity period of a ""certificate of airworthiness"" varies with the conditions under which the aircraft is maintained.If the maintenance is carried out according to an approved programme and done in a maintenance shop approved by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity period is:

three years for public transport aircraft and one year for the others.

three years.

three years for public transport aircraft and five years for the others.

three years if the aircraft has not undergone major modifications.

#34. The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:

the aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over them.

the aircraft used by police, customs and defense departments.

the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil aircraft.

the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil commercial transport aircraft.

#35. Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the :

flight manual.

operation manual.

journey logbook.

operational flight plan.

#36. An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the :

ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan.

flight plan processing.

operation flight plan.

flight route sheet.

#37. An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:

a copy of the calculated take-off performances.

the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity.

the aircraft equipment report (logbook).

a copy of the weight and balance sheet.

#38. After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:

30 days

90 days

60 days.

45 days

#39. During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a passenger is using a portable device suspected to disburb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain:

authorizes its use except during take-off and landing phases.

must not authorize any person to use such a device on board.

authorizes its use during the whole flight phase.

may authorize the use of this device, as an exception.

#40. Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It contains more particularly:1 - the weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination,2 - one copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet,3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft's materiel report,4 - the en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator,5 - notification for special loadings,6 - for each flight, details of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1,2,3,4,5,6

2,4

2,3,4,5

1,3,5

#41. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least :

12 months

3 months

15 months

24 months

#42. The captain is asked by the authority to present the documents of the aircraft. He

can request a delay of 48 hours.

can refuse to present them.

can only do so after having consulted the operator.

must do so, within a reasonable period of time.

#43. The ""NO SMOKING"" sign must be illuminated :

during climb and descent.

in each cabin section if oxygen is being carried.

when oxygen is being supplied in the cabin.

during take off and landing.

#44. A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :

a decision height of at least 200 ft

a decision height of at least 50 ft

no decision height

a decision height of at least 100 ft

#45. A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with :

a runway visual range of at least 50 m

no runway visual range limits

a runway visual range of at least 200 m

a runway visual range of at least 350 m

#46. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :550 m

350 m

800 m

550 m

500 m

#47. . A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

200 m

100 m

250 m

50 m

#48. A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

250 m

75 m

150 m

200 m

#49. A category I precision approach (CAT I) has :

a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.

a decision height equal to at least 100 ft.

a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.

no decision height.

#50. A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :

2400 m

1600 m

3600 m

1500 m

#51. A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :

3600 m

2400 m

1600 m

1500 m

#52. A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

1500 m

3600 m

2400 m

1600 m

#53. A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :

2400 m

1500 m

1600 m

3600 m

#54. During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than :

2 m (7 ft) below the airdrome altitude

2 m (7 ft) above the airdrome altitude

4 m (14 ft) below the airdrome altitude

4 m (14 ft) above the airdrome altitude

#55. The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account :1. equipment available for navigation2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways3. composition of the flight crew4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas5. facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditionsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1,2,4,5

1,2,3,4,5

2,4,5

2,3,5

#56. . When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor of:

1.45

1.15

1.3

1.5

#57. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are :

MDH=400 ft and visibility=1500 m

MDH=600 ft and visibility=2400 m

MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 m

MDH=700 ft and visibility=2600 m

#58. JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that :

for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1 000 m at least

for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250 m at least

for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3 050 m. (10 000 ft) is 5 km at least (clear of cloud)

special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km

#59. In accordance with JAR OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A Operation, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR (runway visual range) no less than :

250 m

200 m

230 m

300 m

#60. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operationg Minima), an operator must ensure that system minima for ""non-precision approach procedures"", which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:

ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ft

NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft

VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft

VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft

#61. In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III B operations, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200 m but no less than :

150 m

75 m

100 m

50 m

#62. The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 knots. The aircraft is flown by a single pilot.The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold mid and end of runway.The approach minimums for runway 06 are : DH = 300 feet, Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres.The weather conditions are : horizontal visibility (HV) 900 metres and ceiling 200 feet.Is take-off possible?

No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's approach procedure.

Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM.

No, visibility being below 1 200 metres.

Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the approach procedure.

#63. The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum horizontal visibility required for take-off is:

150 m.

200 m.

300 m.

150 m if a threshold RVR is available.

#64. The information to consider for a standard straight-in approach is :1 - the horizontal visibility2 - the ceiling3 - the minimum descending altitude (MDA)4 - the decision altitude (DA)Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

04-Jan

2001-02-03

2001-02-04

03-Jan

#65. For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:

30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.

30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.

60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.

60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.

#66. During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:

the FAF.

the outer marker (OM).

the middle marker.

the start final descent point (glide slope intersection).

#67. The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-precision direct IFR approach with the following operational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the runway are given by the controller...

the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold and mid-runway RVR are higher than 750 metres.

the pilot may start the final approach if the three RVR are higher than 750 metres.

the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is higher than 750 metres.

flying a non-precision approach, the pilot may start the final approach only if he has a meteorological visibility higher than 750 metres. RVR are to be taken into account only for precision approaches.

#68. An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational minima are : MDH = 360 feet, horizontal visibility = 1 500 metres :Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 500 metres :The pilot may start the final approach...

whatever the ceiling given by ATC.

if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 360 feet.

if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet.

if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet during the day and 360 feet at night.

#69. In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories.The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3.Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is :

B

C

D

E

#70. Supplemental oxygen is used to :

provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation

protect a crew who fights a fire

provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation

assist a passenger with breathing disorders

#71. The minimum flight crew for night transport of passengers or according to the Instrument flight rules is :

2 pilots for turbo-jet aircraft and turbo-prop aircraft with more than 9 passenger seats

2 pilots for any aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or having more than 9 passenger seats

1 pilot for any aircraft weighing less than 5.7 tons, provided that the maximum certified number of passenger seats is less than 9

2 pilots for any turbo-prop aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or for any turbo-jet aircraft

#72. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-command unless :

he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60 days

he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days

he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

#73. JAR-OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless :

he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 90 days.

he has operated as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at the controls during takeoff and landing of the type to be used in the preceding 90 days.

he has carried out as-pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at lest three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 30 days

he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command or as a co-pilot at the controls of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days.

#74. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be :

3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

#75. An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot).The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old).The boarding of all passengers is:

authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt. No other particular precautions are necessary.

forbidden.

authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat, using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if necessary.

authorized, providing both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to relase thir seat bel

#76. In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual inidicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ?

if the aircraft is a twin-engine.

never.

if part or all the flight is done at night.

if the flight lasts more than 3 hours.

#77. The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records:1 - the training2 - the test results3 - a log of flying hours4 - a summary of the training by reference periodWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers?

2001-02-03

03-Fev

1 - 2 - 3 - 4

04-Mar

#78. An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft planned for the flight is a performance class B aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or its alternate route scheduled from this initial route, to reach a climb rate of at least :

300 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous power.

300ft/min with all engines operating at maximum continuous power.

500 ft/min with all engines operating at maximum cruise power.

500 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous power.

#79. When a course is plotted at minimum time route, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot) a vector KK' which is equal to:mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone

wind at K'.

wind at K.

mean wind up to the next ground isochrone.

mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone

#80. A minimum time track is a :

great circle track

track determined according to weather conditions

rhumb line

spherical capable flight segment

#81. On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :

45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

30 minutes at cruising speed

45 minutes at cruising speed

30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

#82. On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :

2 hours with normal cruising consumption

2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

30 minutes with normal cruising consumption

#83. When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding :

1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines

2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine

1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine

2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines

#84. When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding :

2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating

1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engine inoperative

1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all enginesoperating

2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative

#85. According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twin-engined aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19 passagers must be planned in such a way that on one engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within :

30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

#86. According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions stipulated in the regulations are effective for at least :

2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival

1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival

3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival

3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival

#87. A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have :

increased manoeuvring limits

increased flight envelope

increased Mach number stability

reduced range

#88. For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude increase. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of chosing cruising levels which increase during the flight in order to fly :

about the lock-on altitude

between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altitude

about the optimum altitude

just below the optimum altitude

#89. If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:

rhumb line.

curve of some type or other.

great circle.

spherical flight segment.

#90. An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfecly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000°.The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true heading equal to 095°. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode.If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at Q will be :

328°.

345°.

003°.

334°.

#91. A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial navigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching to ""magnetic mode"", the compass heading is 220°. The INS position at this moment is 76°N 180°W. The magnetic variation on the chart is 10°E.The compass shift on this heading at this point in time is:

+5°.

-15°.

+15°.

-5°.

#92. You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B (60°N 020°E).The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A.The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1h30 min with a zero wind, is equal to :

080°.

066°.

076°.

085°

#93. A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the meridian 054°W, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.An aircraft is following a true course of 330°.At position 80°N 140°E, its grid heading (GH) with this system will be :136°.

276°.

316°.

136°.

164°.

#94. On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true North pole, the ""true"" orientation of the great circle linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°. The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is :

298°.

301°.

295°.

292°.

#95. The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of the Antarctic regions. A grid, printed over it, its aligned with meridian 180°, the grid North in the direction of the geographic North (non standard grid).The grid course followed by the aircraft is Rg=280°, the position is 80°S 100°E.The true course followed at this moment is :

260°.

000°.

080°.

100°.

#96. The inertreal navigtion system (INS) indicates:Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'WDrift: 6°L (left)The route followed in order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station used:RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3W), this VOR has North set on the local geographic meridian.The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic North Pole).The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at this moment:(the distance DME is in the box)

3

2

4

1

#97. The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro does not comprise a rate correction device.The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading 120°. A technical problem delays take off until 16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, was not reset prior to take off.The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be :

+32.5°.

+13°.

+73.5°.

-32.5°.

#98. On a polar stereographic chart where the earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is :

4.0 NM.

9.2 NM.

30 NM.

4.0 NM.

#99. In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart whose printed over grid is parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of geographic North along this meridian.The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is 110°, the grid route at this moment is :

060°.

240°.

110°.

340°

#100. At 18h40min UTC, a complete failure of the inertial systems of an aircraft flying on the LONDON- ANCHORAGE line occurs in the geographic North pole region. The wind is nil, the grid heading at this moment is 315°. The crew then uses the Sun to continue the flight. The bearing of the Sun on occurence of the failure is :NOTE: The time equation is nil. The chart used is a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the zero meridian, the Grid North is in direction of the geographic North pole.

325°.

035°.

180°.

000°.

#101. With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Navigation System (INS), you can read the following information :- Desired track (DTK) = 100°- Track (TK) = 120°You can conclude that the :

Track Error Angle (TKE) is left (L)

Track Error Angle (TKE) is right (R)

Aircraft is converging towards its ideal course

Aircraft is diverging from its ideal course

#102. In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a :

great circle line

rhumb line

spherical flight segment

straight map line

#103. Posit :g, the longitude differenceLm, the average latitudeLo, the latitude of the tangentThe transport precession is equal to :

15°/h.sin Lm

g.sin Lm

g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)

g/2.sin Lm

#104. Posit :g, the longitude differenceLm, the average latitudeLo, the latitude of the tangentThe correct formula of the conversion angle applied, during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to :

15°/h.sin Lm

g/2.sin Lm

g.sin Lm

g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)

#105. During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North with respect to the:

true North

grid North

magnetic North

compass North

#106. During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the :

grid North for any chart

true North for a given chart

grid North for a given chart

true North for any chart

#107. Astronomic precession is :existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying

independent of the latitude

existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying

depending on the chart used

zero when the aircraft is on the ground

#108. Posit :g, the longitude differenceLm, the average latitudeLo, the latitude of the tangentThe correct formula expressing the travel precession applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to :

15°/h.sin Lm

g.sin Lm

g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)

g/2.sin Lm

#109. Astronomic precession :

causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Southern hemisphere

is zero at the North pole

is zero at the South pole

causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern hemisphere

#110. Astronomic precession :

causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern hemisphere

causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern hemisphere

is zero at the North pole

is zero at the South pole

#111. A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than :

17 micro-tesla

38 micro tesla

6 micro-tesla

10 micro-tesla

#112. For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:

One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS).

One Inertial Navigation System (INS).

Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).

Two independant Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).

#113. When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:

take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan.

take any Mach number.

take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his airline.

maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic clearance.

#114. MNPS is the abbreviation for:

Maximum North-atlantic Precision System.

Military Network Performance Structure.

Minimum Navigation Positioning System.

Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.

#115. In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:

ground speed.

true airspeed.

indicated airspeed.

Mach number.

#116. In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:

request authorization from Control to track another aircraft.

set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous one.

immediately climb or descent 1 000 ft.

notify Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time.

#117. A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The flight must be planned to take place :

outside scheduled flight times.

at flight level FL 280 or less.

at a Mach number of 0.70 or less.

at a constant airspeed of 480 kt.

#118. The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during an Eastbound flight normally is :

10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC

01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC

00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

#119. The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during a Westbound flight normally is :

11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC

10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC

01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

#120. During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC , you will then normally be :

within the organized daytime flight track system.

out of the organized flight track system.

within the organized night-time flight track system.

in a random space.

#121. During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC , you will then normally be ,

within the organized daytime flight track system

within the organized night-time flight track system

in a random space

out of the organized flight track system

#122. The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least :

Two inertial navigation units.

Two inertial navigation units and a DECCA.

Three inertial navigation units.

One inertial navigation unit.

#123. The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is :

5 minutes.

15 minutes.

20 minutes.

10 minutes.

#124. The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is :60 NM.

30 NM.

90 NM.

60 NM.

120 NM.

#125. During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal spacing must be at least :

10 minutes

5 minutes

15 minutes

20 minutes

#126. If both precision navigation systems of an aircraft are unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if you cannot establish communication with the air traffic control, you :

descend below the MNPS space

take an intermediate flight level

return to departure airport

land at the nearest airport

#127. The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from :

30° North to 90° North.

27° North to 70° North.

27° North to 90° North.

30° North to 70° North.

#128. The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:

285 and 420.

280 and 400.

280 and 390.

275 and 400.

#129. In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is :

118.800 MHz.

121.800 MHz.

131.800 MHz.

128.800 MHz.

#130. In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the pilot must:

return to his flight plan route if its different from the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledge by him.

continue his flight compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledge by him.

join one of the so-called ""special"" routes.

change the flight level in accordance with the predetermined instructions.

#131. The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is :

121.5 MHz.

131.8 MHz.

243 MHz.

118.5 MHz.

#132. A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done :

At or prior entering the NAT region.

Prior entering the NAT region.

As soon as possible after entering the NAT region.

A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done :

#133. If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the FPL by :

inserting coordinates as detailed in the NAT track message.

using the abbreviation ""OTS"" followed by the code letter assigned to the track.

inserting coordinates defining significant points with intervals of 10° of longitude.

the abbreviation ""NAT"" followed by the code letter assigned to the track.

#134. In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing ""NAT"" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight level should :

If below FL410, climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

If above FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

If above FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

If below FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

#135. In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing ""NAT"" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight level should:

If at FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

If at FL410, climb 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

If at FL410, climb or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

at FL410, descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

#136. In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing ""NAT"" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to maintain its assigned flight level should:

Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 60 NM from its assigned route or track.

Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 90 NM from its assigned route or track.

Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 30 NM from its assigned route or track.

Descend below FL275.

#137. An air traffic unit may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:

5° of longitude.

20° of longitude.

15° of longitude.

10° of longitude.

#138. An air traffic units may request the aircraft to report position when flying eastwest north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:

10° of longitude.

20° of longitude.

15° of longitude.

5° of longitude.

#139. Which errors in ""estimates"" minutes shall be reported by aircraft overflying the North Atlantic?

5 or more.

10 or more.

3 or more.

2 or more.

#140. The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:

60 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.

60 NM between aircraft operating below MNPS airspace.

90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region.

#141. Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating in MNPS airspace?

90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.

60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.

60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.

90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.

#142. At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region?

Between FL275 and FL400.

Between FL290 and FL410.

Between FL245 and FL410.

Below FL290.

#143. Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:

Flying above 3000 ft.

Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace.

Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft whichever is higher.

Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within uncontrolled airspace.

#144. During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1000 UTC , you will normally be :

in a day flight route system.

in random airspace.

in a night flight route system.

out of the organised route system.

#145. During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Spécification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 2330 UTC , you will normally be :

in a day flight route system

in a night flight route system

out of the organized route system

in random airspace

#146. The abbreviation MNPS means :

Main Navigation Performance Specification

Minimum Navigation Performance Specification

Maximum Navigation Performance Specification

Magnetic Navigation Performance Specification

#147. . Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North Atlantic is comprised within :

flight levels 285 and 420 from the North parallel 27 to the pole

flight levels 270 and 400 from the equator to the pole

sea level and FL660 from North parallel 27 to the pole

flight levels 280 and 475 from North parallel 27 to the pole

#148. Penetration into the North Atlantic ocean airspace is :

subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of flight (scheduled or not)

not subject to a clearance, since the flight is already controlled

subject to a mandatory clearance

subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed

#149. The ascent or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a non MNPS certified aircraft is :

forbidden in all cases

authorized when the aircraft has two precision navigation systems

authorized only if the aircraft is in radio contact with the aircraft present in this space

authorized under radar control if the aircraft is in VHF contact with the MNPS controller

#150. Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace over the North Atlantic and not having yet received the oceanic clearance, the crew :

returns to base immediately

carries out a holding pattern

keeps flying in accordance with the air-filed flight plan

keeps flying deviating its course by 30 nautical miles from that of the air-filed flight plan

#151. The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to :

the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures)the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures)

rules issued by the bordering States (document 6530)

rules common to the bordering States, grouped in document 7050 (North Atlantic Ocean Airspace)

Canadian rules, because this country has the greatest surface area of territorial waters in this airspace

#152. In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is :

500 ft

2000ft

1 000 ft

1 500 ft

#153. An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles .... etc), but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and :climb or descend 500 ft

climb or descent 1 000 ft

climb or descend 500 ft

limb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft

climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft

#154. An aircraft flying above flight level 410 on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles... etc), bus is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and :

climb or descent 500 ft

climb or descend 1 000 ft

climb 1 000 ft or descent 500 ft

climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft

#155. An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to maintain its assigned level,and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft, if :

above FL 410

below FL 410

at FL410

at FL 430

#156. An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if :

at FL 410

below FL 410

above FL 410

at FL 430

#157. According to the recommended ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A"" established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches :

3 000 ft

2 000 ft

1 000 ft

1 500 ft

#158. According to the recommended ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A"" established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches :

3 000 ft

2 000 ft

1 000 ft

1 500 ft

#159. The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by :

the operator and is specified in the operation manual

the operator and approved by the certification authority

the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority

the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer

#160. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment on which certain inflight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted . The Mel is drawn up by :

the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)

the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)

the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)

the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)

#161. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:

the manufacturer.

the airline operator.

the aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on.

the Civil Aviation Authority of the european states.

#162. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:

the minimum equipment list.

the JAR OPS.

the flight record.

the operation manual's chapter ""Abnormal and Emergency Procedures"".

#163. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:

the operation manual's chapter ""Abnormal and Emergency procedures"".

the JAR OPS.

the minimum equipment list.

the flight manual.

#164. The minimum equipment list of a public transport airplane is to be found in the :

JAR OPS.

flight manual

operation manual.

flight record.

#165. The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:

the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority

the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority

the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority

the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer

#166. The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additonnal procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:

the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual

the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual

the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual

the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual

#167. The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions, occurs on :

The upper and lower wingsurfaces.

The upper and lower rudder surfaces.

Only the pitot and static probes.

The aircraft front areas.

#168. The terminal VOR transmittes the following weather data. When do you expect carburettor icing?

Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +15°CDew Point (DEWP) : -5°C

Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +10°CDew Point (DEWP) : +7°C

Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +25°CDew Point (DEWP) : +5°C

Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : -10°CDew point (DEWP) : -15°C

#169. If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:

Less than the actual.

Greater than the actual.

Equal to the actual.

Dependent on the temperature.

#170. In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check that:

external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm.

external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid.

possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits.

external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight manual.

#171. The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:

value of the stall angle of attack

tuck under

roll rate

stalling speed

#172. The reference document dealing with air transport of hazardous materials is :

ICAO Appendix 8

ICAO Appendix 18

the Washington Convention

Instruction No. 300 of June 3, 1957

#173. When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects:1 - an increase in the take-off distance2 - a diminution of the take-off run3 - an increase in the stalling speed4 - a diminution of the stalling speed5 - a diminution of the climb gradientThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

2, 4, 5

1, 2, 3

1, 3, 5

2, 3, 5

#174. The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a :

24 hours protection time.

certain time of protection depending on its concentration.

certain time of protection independent of the outside temperature.

3 hours protection time.

#175. If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure inspection reveals evidence of freezing, the correct action is to :

complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility of further freezing

carry out a further de-icing process

switch on all the aeroplane anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until clear of icing conditions when airborne

complete departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover (protection) time for the prevailing conditons and type of fluid used has not been exceeded

#176. At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in air free of cloud, fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing :

cannot occur

can occur, but only at a low power setting

can occur, but only at full power or cruise settings

is possible at any setting

#177. For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ?

Steady snow

Freezing fog

Freezing rain

Frost

#178. During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:

at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).

at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).

at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).

a the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).

#179. During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:

the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.

the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.

the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot.

the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot.

#180. Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions:

The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly

The aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-icing fluid

The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems

A meterologist shall decide whether the flight may be performed without ice-protection systems

#181. In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on your airplane, you are waiting to take-off by:1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft 3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft 4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

3, 4

2, 3

1, 4

1, 2

#182. An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free at the latest when :

releasing the brakes in order to take-off.

it is implementing its own anti-icing devices.

it is rotating (before taking-off).

leaving the icing zone.

#183. An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the protection time of the anti-icing fluid:

must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.

need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.

must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off.

must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid for take-off.

#184. The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:1. the type and intensity of the showers2. the ambient temperature3. the relative humidity4. the direction and speed of the wind5. the temperature of the airplane skin6. the type of fluid, its concentration and temperatureThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 3, 5, 6

2, 3, 4, 5

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

1, 2, 4, 6

#185. The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the protection time:

when the outside temperature is close to 0 °C.

when the temperature of the airplane skin is close to 0 °C.

during strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft engines jet wash.

when the airplane is into the wind.

#186. Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:

stagnate on the runway.

separate to the right side.

separate to the left side.

separate on each side of the runway.

#187. When an aircraft, having already undergone an anti-icing procedure, must be protected again:

You can apply directly the new layer of anti-icing fluid without previous de-icing.

First, you must de-ice again the surface of the airplane, then apply the new layer of anti-icing fluid.

You must operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing devices before applying the new layer of anti-icing fluid.

you must wait until the protection time of the anti-icing fluid is over before applying the new layer of anti-icing fluid.

#188. The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary considerbly depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of :

freezing fog

rain on a cold soaked wing

steady snow

frost

#189. For stable clouds:1- the most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and -10°C2- the most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and -15°C3- icing becomes rare at t < -18°C4- icing becomes rare at t < -30°C5- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03mm6- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and 0.2mmWhich of the following combinations contains all the correct statements?

2002-04-06

2001-03-05

2002-03-05

2001-04-06

#190. The observations and studies conducted on the behavior of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, show that birds fly away :

about ten seconds beforehand

as soon as they hear the engines noise

about two seconds beforehand

from the beginning of the takeoff roll

#191. A analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk is encountered in a layer from :

from 500 to 1200 m.

from 100 to 800 m.

from 200 to 500 m.

from 0 to 150 m.

#192. 90 % of bird strikes occur :

above 1 000 m

between 500 and 1 000 m

under 500 m

between 500 and 1 500 m

#193. Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds ?

edible rubbish

an area liable to flooding

short gang-mown grass

long grass

#194. Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome ?

mowing and maintaining the grass long

a refuse tip in close proximity

a modern sewage tip in close proximity

the extraction of minerals such as sand and gravel

#195. The most efficient bird scaring technique generally available is :

firing shellcrackers

broadcasting of recorded distress calls

various visual methods

the use of model predators, scarecrows, etc

#196. As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot's means of information and prevention are:1 - ATIS.2 - NOTAMs.3 - BIRDTAMs.4 - Weather radar.5 - The report by another crew.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1,2,3,4,5

1,2,5

1,3,4

2,5

#197. You are the captain of a commercial airplane and you notice, after take-off, a flock of birds which may present a bird strike hazard, you must:

inform the other aircraft by radio.

immediately inform the appropriate ground station.

inform the appropriate ground station within a reasonable period of time.

draft a bird strike hazard report upon arrival and within at most 48 hours.

#198. During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control vibrations a landing must be made immediately. Following this incident the pilot :

must file an AIR PROX report: the Control Tower having given no warning

must file a airworthiness report

is not obliged to report this incident

must file a Bird Strike report

#199. About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:

Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using reverse thrust .

They prohibit the use of reverse thrust .

Such procedures do not exist.

They are applied in the case of an instrument approach only.

#200. Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following circumstances :1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots.2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots.3. when the runway is not clear or dry.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1,2.

1,2,3.

1,3.

2,3.

#201. After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:

only from left or right side.

only from front or rear side.

from any side.

under no circumstances.

#202. Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment for fire fighting is on board:

water and all type of beverage.

a hydraulic winch and a big box of tools.

crash axes or crowbars.

a big bunch of fire extinguishing blankets.

#203. If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to :

Put on the mask and goggles.

Begin an emergency descent.

Determine which system is causing the smoke.

Cut off all air conditioning units.

#204. You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for :1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

3,4

1,2,3

2,3

1,2,3,4

#205. You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for:1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1,2,3

2,3

1, 2, 3, 4

1,4

#206. The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is :

Water may only be used for minor fires.

A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.

Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.

Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.

#207. The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is generally the :

pressurization

ventilation of the cargo compartment

total airconditioning

trim air

#208. Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the :

temperature of the hydraulic fluid.

pressure of the hydraulic fluid.

temperature of the brakes.

pressure of the pneumatic tyres.

#209. A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use is :

water

CO2 (carbon dioxide)

dry powder

foam

#210. A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a fabric fire3. an electric fire4. a wood fire5. a hydrocarbon fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 3, 5

2, 3, 4

2, 4, 5

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

#211. A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a hydrocarbon fire3. a fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 3, 5

2, 3, 4

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

2, 4, 5

#212. A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for:1. a paper fire2. a hydrocarbon fire3. a fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 3, 5

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

2, 3, 4

2, 4, 5

#213. You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a fire of :1 - solids (fabric, carpet, ...)2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ...)3 - gas4 - metals (sodium, ...)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

2

3

1

3 and 4

#214. You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...)3 - gas4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1,2,3,4

1,2,3

2,3,4

1,2,4

#215. An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle.The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:

the fire shut-off handle has been pulled.

the fire-extinguisher has been triggered.

fire is no longer detected.

all the fire-extinguishers connected to this engine have been triggered.

#216. After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you:

release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore.

release the parking brake and you approach the wheels sidewards

apply the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from fore or aft.

apply the parking brake and approach the wheels sidewards.

#217. In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using:1. a dry powder fire extinguisher2. a water spray atomizer3. a water fire-extinguisher4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximumThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

2,3,4

3,4

1,4

1, 2

#218. In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you :

carry out a damp cranking.

pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers.

carry out a dry cranking.

fight the nozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher.

#219. To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use:1. a water fire-extinguisher2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher3. a halon fire-extinguisher4. a CO2 fireextinguisherThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3, 4

3, 4

1,2

2, 3, 4

#220. To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:

Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning.

Extinguish fire only.

Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an airconditioned cargo hold is forbidden.

you turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire.

#221. A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to fight:1- class A fires2- class B fires3- electrical source fires4- special fires: metals, gas, chemicalsWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

04-Fev

1 - 2 - 3 - 4

04-Mar

001-02-03

#222. The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halogenWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

2002-03-04

1

04-Mar

1 - 2 - 3 - 4

#223. The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halogenWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

1 - 2 - 3 - 4

2

2002-03-04

04-Mar

#224. H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:

Class B fires

Class A fires

electrical source fires

special fires: metals, gas, chemical products

#225. CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight:1 - class A fires2 - class B fires3 - electrical source fires4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical productWhich of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:

2001-02-04

2002-03-04

2001-02-03

2001-03-04

#226. A class A fire is a fire of:

liquid or liquefiable solid

solid material, generally of organic nature

electrical origin

metal or gas or chemical (special fires)

#227. A class B fire is a fire of:

solid material usually of organic nature

electrical source fire

special fire: metal, gas, chemical product

liquid or liquefiable solid

#228. We would know that the automatic pressurization system has malfunctioned if :1. threre is a change in environnemental sounds.2. the cabin barometer indicates a sharp rise.3. the differential pressure between the exterior and the interior becomes equal.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1,2.

1,3.

1,2,3.

2,3.

#229. An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by the operating crew ?

to put on oxygen masks

disconnect the autopilot

transmit a MAYDAY message

place the seat belts sign to ON

#230. When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate :

a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm

a rate of climb

zero

a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure

#231. If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure :

increases

decreases

remains constant

attains its maximum permitted operating limit

#232. Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately :

22500 ft

27000 ft

29000 ft

24500

#233. Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not impaired is :

25000 ft

8000 ft

14000 ft

2500 ft

#234. Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the ""normal"" position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?

25000 ft

14000 ft

32000 ft

8000 ft

#235. The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is :

13000 ft

15000 ft

25000 ft

#236. The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:

30 seconds.

1 minute.

5 minute.

12 seconds.

#237. During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be :

to set the transponder to 7700

to put on the oxygen mask

to warn the ATC

to comfort your passengers

#238. A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements:1. mist in the cabin2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft3. expansion of body gases4. blast of air released violently from the lungsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

2, 3, 4

1,2,3

1, 2, 3, 4

1,4

#239. A slow decompression may be caused by:1. a slight airtightness defect2. a bad functioning of the pressurization3. the loss of a window4. the loss of a doorThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3, 4

1.2

3,4

1, 2, 3

#240. In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will:1. set the maximum take-off thrust2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)4. keep the airplane's current configuration5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratioThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 4

1, 3, 5

2, 3

3, 5

#241. During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1. flies above the glide path2. flies below the glide path3. has an increasing true airspeed4. has a decreasing true airspeedThe combination of correct statements is :

2,3

1,3

2,4

1,4

#242. During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the glide path2- flies below the gilde path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a decreasing true airspeedThe combination of correct statements is :

2,3

1,3

1,4

2,4

#243. During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing head wind.In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the glide path2- flies below theglide path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a decreasing true airspeedThe combination of correct statements is :

1,4

1,3

2,3

2,4

#244. During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the glide path2- flies below the glide path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a decreasing true airspeedthe combination of correct statements is :

1,3.

1,4.

2,3.

2,4

#245. After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the climb-out path2- flies below the climb-out path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a decreasing true airspeedThe combination of correct statements is :

2,3

2,4

1,3.

1,4.

#246. In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind which forces you to go around. You1- maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and flaps)2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps)3- gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker4- avoid excessive attitude changeThe combination of correct statements is :

1,4

2,3

1,3

2,4

#247. When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends :

to climb

not to change its trajectory

to descend

to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength

#248. One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it :

occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane

can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes

occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane

can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane

#249. Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear ?

Pitch angle.

Vertical speed.

Groundspeed

Indicated airspeed.

#250. While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the preselected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must :

reduce rapidly the selected thrust, maintain on the glide path.

maintain the aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation, monitor the speed evolution.

take a level flight attitude to reduce speed, then come back to glide path from above.

reduce rapidly the selected thrust in order to reach 1.2 Vs and try a precision landing.

#251. While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a ""microburst"". You will expect to encounter:

wake turbulence.

supercooled water.

convection motion of air mass.

windshears (vertical and horizontal).

#252. If you encounter a ""microburst"" just after taking-off, at the beginning you will have:1 - a head wind2 - a strong rear wind3 - better climb performances4 - a diminution of climb gradient5 - an important thrust dropThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

2,4

1,4

1,3

4,5

#253. Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is :

small

medium

substantial

null

#254. In the ""worst case"" scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to :

increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold at slightly below this angle

climb away at Vat + 20 kt

reduce speed to V2 and hold

slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb

#255. An aircraft which experiencies a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of :

40 kt.

80 kt.

60 kt.

20 kt.

#256. Wind shear is:

a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance

a vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance

a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short distance

a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance

#257. In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:

The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.

The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.

The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.

The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence

#258. In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at :

low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals.

high altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals.

low altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals.

low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals.

#259. The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is :

Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration

Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration

Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration

Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configration

#260. To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuver :

Above and downwind from the larger aircraft

Below and downwind from the larger aircraft

Below and upwind from the larger aircraft

Above and upwind from the larger aircraft

#261. The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is :1. slow2. heavy3. in a clean configuration4. flying with a high thrustThe combination of correct statement is:

1, 2, 3, 4

1, 4

1, 2, 3

2, 3, 4

#262. The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :

high weight and high speed

low weight and low speed

high weight and low speed

low weight and high speed

#263. The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of:1. An aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices).2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts).3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps, etc.).The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

3.

1.

2 and 3.

1, 2 and 3.

#264. Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established :

drag

lift

spin up

lift destruction

#265. Wake turbulence risk is highest :

if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind.

following a preceding aircraft at high speed.

when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind.

when a preceeding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.

#266. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ?

9.3 km (5 NM)

11.1 km (6 NM)

3.7 km (2 NM)

7.4 km (4 NM)

#267. When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the right side, you adopt a path, whenever possible :

distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the left of and under its path.

identical to the one of the preceding airplane.

distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the right of and above its path.

different from the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path.

#268. When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever possible :distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left of and above its path.

distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left of and above its path.

distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the right of and under its path.

identical

distinct form the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path.

#269. The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:

30 minutes.

1 minute.

3 minutes.

10 minutes.

#270. The wake turbulence:

starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and stops as soon as it has come to a stop at landing.

starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops when it crosses this height before landing.

starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when rectracting the drag devices.

starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplane's wheels touch the ground.

#271. An airplane creates a wake turbulence when :

flying at high speed.

using a high engine R.P.M.

flying with its gear and flaps extended.

generating lift.

#272. The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip :

clockwise.

counterclockwise

from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.

from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing.

#273. When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should takeoff :

in front of the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.

beyond the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.

at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down and on the wind side of the runway .

at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched the ground and on the underwind side of the runway .

#274. For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?

11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes

7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes

9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes

9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes

#275. For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ?

4 minutes

5 minutes

3 minutes

2 minutes

#276. In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg :

H

M

L

S

#277. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ?

4 minutes

5 minutes

2 minutes

3 minutes

#278. When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be :

1 MIN

2 MIN

3 MIN

4 MIN

#279. According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied :

to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing threshold

to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross

Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off

to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel runway separated by less 760 m

#280. According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to :

MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760 m

LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway

MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

#281. In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of :

5 NM

4 NM

3 NM

2 NM

#282. According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to :

LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway)

LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway

MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

#283. According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9,3 Km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a :

LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)

HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)

MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 n (1 000 ft)

LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000.ft)

#284. DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass.Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of :

135 000 Kg or more

136 000 Kg or more

less than 136 000 Kg but more than 126 000 Kg

146 000 Kg or more

#285. What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked) is :

7500

7600

7700

7800

#286. In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:

you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.

you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.

you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach

you dexcend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.

#287. In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the :

State of Registry of the aircraft and the J.A.A.

State of the operator, the J.A.A. and ICAO

State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO

State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only

#288. Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act to :

the local authority only

the Autority of the State of the operator only

the Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the unlawful interference

both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator

#289. Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference until their journey can be continued ? The :

J.A.A.

Commander of the aircraft

contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs

aeroplane's operator

#290. What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference :

code 7600

code 7500

code 7700

code 2000

#291. The flight deck door should be capable of being :

directly locked from outside the compartment

locked from within the compartment

remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment

remotely locked from either inside or outside the compartment

#292. According to the JAR OPS, when a commercial transport passenger airplane is equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment ar

a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the cockpit.

a locking system to prevent any unauthorized access.

distinctive red or yellow colored markings indicating the access area (in case of a blocked door).

a sealing system allowing the maintenance for as long as possible of the pressure in the cockpit in case of a depressurization in the compartment area.

#293. In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is :

7600

7700

7500

2000

#294. The safety position for adults looks like: seat belts fastened,

head down as far as possible, grasp the passenger in front of you.

head placed on a knee cushion, arms around the thigh.

head down as far as possible, grasp the legs with your arms.

cross the arm in front of the face.

#295. An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to :

reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be very slippery on landing

maintain the normal approach speed up to landing

carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid exposing too much lifting surface to the rain

increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift by deteriorating the boundary layer

#296. Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will:1 - remain on the runway,2 - clear the runway using the first available taxiway,3 - keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical power supply on,4 - turn off all systems.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:1

1,3.

2,3.

1,4.

2,4.

#297. The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in case of an emergency landing are: 1. legs together and feet flat on the floor,2. head resting against the back of the front seat,3. forearms on the armrests,4. seat belt very tightly fastened,5. head resting on the forearms.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3, 4

2, 3, 4

1, 4, 5

2, 4, 5

#298. Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterize:

a slow depressurization.

an electrical fire.

a plastic fire.

a fast depressurization.

#299. In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will :1. evacuate women and children first.2. have the passengers embark directly in the liferafts.3. prevent passenger movements which may impede the airplane's flotation ability.4. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

2,3

1, 2, 3, 4

2, 3, 4

1,4

#300. For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in :

132 seconds

90 seconds

120 seconds

60 seconds

#301. The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:

a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants

an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board or on the surface

a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupants

an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board

#302. A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft weight in an emergency :

unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements : 2.7% in approach configuration with 1 engine inoperative and 3.2% in landing configuration with all engines operative

until the central tank is empty in order to cope with the wing and landing gear constraints at landing touchdown

in order to reach the maximum structural landing weight in less than 15 minutes after activation of the jettisoning system

in order to reduce the landing distance to 60% of the effective runway length

#303. If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:

in a holding stack, after control clearance

under flight level 50 (FL50).

during final phase of approach.

in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level.

#304. In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the precise climb and discontinued approach requirements :

30 minutes

60 minutes

15 minutes

90 minutes

#305. From the following list :1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane.Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests :

1,3 and 4

1 and 4

1,2,3 and 4

2 and 3

#306. Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by:

The ICAO document entitled ""Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air"".

The directives of the Community Union.

The IATA document entitled ""Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods by air"".

#307. Who makes sure that the air transportation of an item of dangerous goods is not prohibited?

The captain, always using the list of prohibited aircraft items.

The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.

The operator.

It is not specified.

#308. A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in :

Annex 18 to the Chicago convention.

Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention.

the technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air.

the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.

#309. The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by :

the shipper.

the operator.

the captain.

the handling agent.

#310. In compliance with the JAR OPS, in order to carry hazardous materials on board a public transport airplane, they must be accompanied with a :

representative of the company owning the materials.

specialized handling employee.

transport document for hazardous materials.

system to warn the crew in case of a leak or of an abnormal increase in temperature.

#311. The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of hazardous materials are specified in the :

flight manual.

AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication).

air carrier certificate

operation manual.

#312. ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with :

the air transport of live animals

the noise pollution of aircraft

the technical operational use of aircraft

the safety of the air transport of hazardous materials

#313. In the hazardous materials transportation act, the freight compliance with the regulatory arrangements is the responsibility of the :

captain.

station manager.

sender.

aerodrome manager.

#314. A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes:1. on himself/herself2. in his/her hand luggage3. in his/her checked luggageThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is

1,2,3

1

1,2

2,3

#315. In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the markings related to dangerous goods :

English

English, French or Spanish

#316. From the following list :1. Fire extinguishers2. Portable oxygen supplies3. First-aid kits4. Passenger meals5. Alcoholic beveragesWhich are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with relevant JAR's for operating reasons :

1,2 and 5 only

1,2 and 3 only

3,4 and 5 only

2,3 and 4 only

#317. The authorization for the transport of hazardous materials is specified on the:

registration certificate.

airworthiness certificate.

air carrier certificate.

insurance certificate.

#318. (For this question use appendix )If a packet is marked with the label shown in the appendix it is :

a corpse

a toxic material or gas

an infectious material

an explosive material

#319. Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:

the airline complies with the Technical Instructions

national aviation administration permission has been granted

government permission has been granted

no passenger is carried on the same flight

#320. (For this question use appendix )For the two labels represented in the appendix, the principal and secondary risks are respectively:

corrosive material, toxic

toxic material, corrosive

corrosive material, infectious

infectious material, corrosive

#321. The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the : depth of the standing water on the runway

aircraft's weight.

strength of the headwind.

amount of the lift off speed.

depth of the standing water on the runway.

#322. If airworthiness documents do not shown any additionnal correction factor for landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be increased by:

20%.

15%.

10%.

5%.

#323. For a given aircraft and runway contamination, increased pressure altitude will:

decreases the hydroplaning speed.

increases the hydroplaning speed.

maintains the hydroplaning speed.

maintains or increases the hydroplaning speed.

#324. Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:

is very smooth and clean. c)

is rough textured.

is very smooth and dirty.

the tyre treads are not in a good state.

#325. The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance of:

rubber reversion hydroplaning

rubber steaming hydroplaning.

dynamic hydroplaning.

viscous hydroplaning. b) dynamic hydroplaning

#326. A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:

wet

looded.

damp.

contaminated.

#327. In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when:1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water.2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance.3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water.4. it bears stagnant sheets of water.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1,2,3

1,2

4

1,3

#328. In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain :1. you increase your approach speed,2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear,3. you decrease your approach speed,4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices,5. you land as smoothly as possible,6. you brake energically.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

3,5

1,2,4

2,3,4

1,4,5,6

#329. The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a :

percentage varying from 10 % to 100 %.

zero followed by two decimals.

combination of the terms: poor, medium, good.

letter falling between A and E.

#330. For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.2- speed is greater than 123 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 95 kt.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1 and 4.

1 and 2.

3 and 4.

2 and 4.

#331. For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.2- speed is greater than 114 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 83 kt.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1 and 4..

2 and 3.

1 and 2.

3 ans 4.

#332. For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.2- speed is greater than 104 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 96 kt.The combination regrouping all the correct statements i :

1 and 4.

1 and 2.

2 and 3.

3 and 4.

#333. For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.2- speed is greater than 96 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 127 kt.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1 and 4.

2 and 3.

1 and 2.

3 and 4.

#334. For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.2- speed is greater than 132 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 117 kt.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1 and 4.

1 and 2.

2 and 3.

3 and 4.

#335. The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is :

12 hours

6 hours

24 hours

3 hours

#336. Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's mainwheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur in the event of applying brakes is :

114 kt

129 kt

100 kt

80 kt

#337. Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published length, how is this reported :Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published length, how is this reported : a

it is not reported

by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the lenght in metres

in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM

as a percentage of the total lenght of the runway available as the final item of a SNOWTAM

#338. A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is :

unreliable

poor

medium

good

#339. In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:

surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.

its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.

it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.

it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.

#340. Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:

20%

18%

15%

17,60%

#341. In the JAR OPS, a runway is refered to as contaminated when more than 25 % of the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements:1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway.2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water.3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further).4. ice, including wet ice.5. moist grass.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1,2,3,4

1,3,4

1,3,4,5

2, 3, 4

#342. The tire pressure of an aircraft main landing gear is 10,8 bars. The speed at which the hydroplaning phenomenon will appear is approximately:

56 kt

87 kt

112 kt

145 kt

#343. When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is :

450 m (1500 ft)

300 m (1000 ft)

150 m (500 ft)

600 m (2000 ft)

#344. Following take-off, the noise abatement climb procedures specified by the operator is :

for the same airplane type, the same for all airports.

for all airplane types, the same for a specific airport.

different for a same airplane type, according to airports.

different according to airports and airplane types.

#345. Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS the :

state of the operator

state in which the aeroplane is operating

operator

commander

#346. Which one of the following factors should prevent a runway being chosen as the preferential landing runway for noise abatement purposes in visual meteorological condition (VMC) ?

Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt

It has a tail wind component of any value

It has a tail wind component of 3 kts and a cross wind, including gusts, of 12 kt

It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance

#347. According with the ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B"", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching :

500 ft

1 500 ft

1 000 ft

3 000 ft

#348. According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO, DOC 8268 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport :

is procedure A

is either procedure A or B, because there is not difference in noise distribution

is procedure B

depends on the wind component

#349. In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 - OPS, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes :

turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the aeroplane has reached and can maintain throughout the turn a height of no less than 100 m above terrain and the highest obstacle.

turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 20° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)

turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 28° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)

no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise abatement procedure.

#350. To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:

useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.

useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.

possible and recommended.

useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.

#351. Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:

all available liquids.

all available extinguishers in sequence.

only the extinguisher corresponding to the toilets.

all available extinguishers simultaneously.

Dgca Question Bank For Pilots

Results

#1. Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:

#2. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

#3. Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a operations manual and also issue the amendments to keep it up to date?

#4. The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less than :3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days

#5. The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least :

#6. A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than :

#7. On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to :

#8. The minimum time track is a track defined for :

#9. The term decision height (DH) is used for :

#10. Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (Annex 6, Part I)

#11. For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that : (Annex 6, Part I)

#12. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are: (Annex 6, Part I)

#13. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)

#14. The operator will include in the operations manual a list of minimum required equipment approved by : (Annex 6, Part I)

#15. Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped: (Annex 6, Part I)

#16. The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :

#17. The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :

#18. The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of :

#19. Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last :

#20. For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last :

#21. On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than :

#22. On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is between :

#24. For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than :

#25. A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off gross weight is greater than :

#26. The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight and located at the rear of the aircraft, is :

#27. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will first see the :

#28. The JAR-OPS is based on :

#29. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right right, will first see the :

#30. The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located at the tip of the left wing is :

#31. For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of :

#32. For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on at alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of :

#33. The validity period of a ""certificate of airworthiness"" varies with the conditions under which the aircraft is maintained.If the maintenance is carried out according to an approved programme and done in a maintenance shop approved by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity period is:

#34. The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:

#35. Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the :

#36. An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the :

#37. An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:

#38. After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:

#39. During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a passenger is using a portable device suspected to disburb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain:

#42. The captain is asked by the authority to present the documents of the aircraft. He

#43. The ""NO SMOKING"" sign must be illuminated :

#44. A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :

#45. A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with :

#46. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :550 m

#47. . A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

#48. A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

#49. A category I precision approach (CAT I) has :

#50. A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :

#51. A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :

#52. A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

#53. A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :

#54. During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than :

#56. . When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor of:

#57. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are :

#58. JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that :

#59. In accordance with JAR OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A Operation, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR (runway visual range) no less than :

#60. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operationg Minima), an operator must ensure that system minima for ""non-precision approach procedures"", which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:

#61. In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III B operations, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200 m but no less than :

#63. The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum horizontal visibility required for take-off is:

#64. The information to consider for a standard straight-in approach is :1 - the horizontal visibility2 - the ceiling3 - the minimum descending altitude (MDA)4 - the decision altitude (DA)Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

#65. For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:

#66. During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:

#67. The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-precision direct IFR approach with the following operational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the runway are given by the controller...

#68. An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational minima are : MDH = 360 feet, horizontal visibility = 1 500 metres :Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 500 metres :The pilot may start the final approach...

#70. Supplemental oxygen is used to :

#71. The minimum flight crew for night transport of passengers or according to the Instrument flight rules is :

#72. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-command unless :

#73. JAR-OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless :

#74. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be :

#75. An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot).The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old).The boarding of all passengers is:

#76. In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual inidicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ?

#77. The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records:1 - the training2 - the test results3 - a log of flying hours4 - a summary of the training by reference periodWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers?

#78. An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft planned for the flight is a performance class B aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or its alternate route scheduled from this initial route, to reach a climb rate of at least :

#79. When a course is plotted at minimum time route, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot) a vector KK' which is equal to:mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone

#80. A minimum time track is a :

#81. On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :

#82. On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :

#83. When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding :

#84. When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding :