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#1. Loads must be adequately secured in order to:

#2. Assume:Aeroplane gross mass: 4750 kgCentre of gravity at station: 115.8What will be the new position of the centre of gravity if 100 kg is moved from the station 30 to station 120?

#3. Density altitude is the

#4. The Density Altitude

#5. Given that:VEF= Critical engine failure speed VMCG= Ground minimum control speedVMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speedV1= TakeTakeoff decision speedVR= Rotation speedV2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speedThe correct formula is:

#6. Given:VS= Stalling speedVMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure)V1= take-off decision speedVR= Rotation speedV2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speedVLOF: Lift-off speed The correct formula is:

#7. Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:

#8. The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is

#9. Which of the following statements is correct?

#10. The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve

#11. On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass

#12. On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass

#13. On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuraton the drag

#14. On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuraton the power required

#15. A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires

#16. The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by

#17. The speed VS is defined as

#18. The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as

#19. In unaccelerated climb

#20. Which of the equations below expresses approximately the unaccelerated percentage climb gradient for small climb angles?

#21. The rate of climb

#22. Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting,

#23. Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight ?

#24. In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required (Tr) equal to the drag (D)?

#25. The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on

#26. The induced drag of an aeroplane

#27. The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest at

#28. What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?

#29. Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected:- runway limit: 5 270 kg- obstacle limit: 4 630 kgEstimated take-off mass is 5 000kg.Considering a take-off with flaps at:

#30. An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance:

#31. How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-off run ? The thrust

#32. A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:

#33. An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:

#34. Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of climb?

#35. How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude?

#36. The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of

#37. A higher outside air temperature

#38. A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant)

#39. A constant headwind

#40. A constant headwind component

#41. With regard to a unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statement is correct?

#42. Which of the following statements is correct?If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases

#43. The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engined aeroplane, in level flight, is reached:

#44. The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:

#45. What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?

#46. At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine aircraft is 100 kt in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:

#47. The critical engine inoperative

#48. A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine failure?

#49. The speed V1 is defined as

#50. The speed VLO is defined as

#51. VX is

#52. The speed for best rate of climb is called

#53. Which of the following speeds can be limited by the 'maximum tyre speed'?

#54. Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in :

#55. If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is

#56. The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is

#57. Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance ?

#58. What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope

#59. The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the optimum is:

#60. When the outside air temperature increases, then

#61. Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be

#62. On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased

#63. Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for takeoff ?

#64. What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?

#65. A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature

#66. The take-off distance required increases

#67. A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:

#68. A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow.The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises a landing in these conditions. The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry runway:

#69. What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?

#70. The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in :

#71. For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be ""wet"". The ""dry runway"" landing distance, should not exceed:

#72. Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the take-off?

#73. Field length is balanced when

#74. What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition ?

#75. The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude.Using the following corrections: ""± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation"" ""- 5 m / kt headwind"" ""+ 10 m / kt tail wind"" ""± 15 m / % runway slope"" ""± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature""The take-off distance from an airport at 1 000 ft elevation, temperature 17°C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, 1% up-slope, 10 kt tail wind is:

#76. An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:

#77. Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%.It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point with an obstacle clearance margin of:

#78. If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway, the landing distance must be increased by:

#79. Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50 ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:

#80. An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have:

#81. The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude.Using the following corrections : ""± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation "" ""- 5 m / kt headwind "" ""+ 10 m / kt tail wind "" ""± 15 m / % runway slope "" ""± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature ""The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft elevation, temperature 21°C, QNH 1013.25 hPa, 2% up-slope, 5 kt tail wind is :

#82. During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component

#83. The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:

#84. Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide?(Ignore compressibility effects.)

#85. Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics ?

#86. When flying the ""Backside of Thrustcurve"" means

#87. In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given by:(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)

#88. An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio

#89. An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide distance:

#90. Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?

#91. Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?

#92. Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?

#93. What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant ?

#94. With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about :

#95. On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass and altitude, the minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt.The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a speed:

#96. A climb gradient required is 3,3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true airspeed , no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:

#97. The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0 ft pressure altitude.Using the following corrections: ""± 0,2 % / 1 000 ft field elevation"" ""± 0,1 % / °C from standard temperature"" "" - 1 % with wing anti-ice"" "" - 0,5% with engine anti-ice""The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1 000 ft, 17° C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is :

#98. During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called:

#99. The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:

#100. Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant,

#101. A twin engined aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose:

#102. The maximum horizontal speed occurs when:

#103. With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is correct ?

#104. How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude?(No compressibility effects.)

#105. The optimum altitude

#106. To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be

#107. The absolute ceiling

#108. The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250 kg.If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be:

#109. Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is correct?

#110. The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in :

#111. Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is achieved at:

#112. For a piston engined aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is :

#113. The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65 and 75 %. The 75% power setting in relation to the 65 % results in:

#114. Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of the following alternatives will decrease the take-off ground run?

#115. An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than:

#116. During the certification flight testing of a twin engine turbojet aeroplane, the real take-off distances are equal to:- 1547 m with all engines running- 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged.The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:

#117. The take-off decision speed V1 is:

#118. Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by:

#119. The take-off performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:

#120. Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1?

#121. The length of a clearway may be included in:

#122. The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:

#123. What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited takeoff?

#124. Which statement is correct?

#125. Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by :

#126. Take-off run is defined as the

#127. The minimum value of V2 must exceed ""air minimum control speed"" by:

#128. Which of the following statements is correct ?

#129. The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed:

#130. Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value which is limited by VMCA?

#131. During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediatly above the correct value of V1?

#132. Which of the following statements is correct?

#133. Which of the following statements is correct?

#134. Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii) .........

#135. With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct?

#136. The take-off run is

#137. Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the takeoff distance available ?

#138. Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?

#139. Which statement regarding V1 is correct?

#140. When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA:

#141. VR cannot be lower than:

#142. V2 has to be equal to or higher than

#143. V1 has to be

#144. The speed VR

#145. The speed V2 is

#146. Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or clearway ?

#147. The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as

#148. The take-off mass could be limited by

#149. Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?

#150. Which of the following will decrease V1?

#151. In case of an engine failure recognized below V1

#152. In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1

#153. The take-off distance available is

#154. The take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes with more than three engines may not be less than:

#155. The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engined or three-engined turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:

#156. Which statement regarding V1 is correct ?

#157. How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors remain constant and not limiting?

#158. Uphill slope

#159. If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would

#160. Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?

#161. Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down-slope...

#162. The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM) are different for the zero flap case and take-off position flap case. What is the result of flap setting in take-off position compared to zero flap position?

#163. The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flaps angles on take-off, leads to the following values, with wind:Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°Runway limitation (kg): 66 000 69 500 71 5002nd segment slope limitation: 72 200 69 000 61 800Wind correction: Head wind:+120kg / kt Tail wind: -360kg / ktGiven that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:

#164. Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:

#165. Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:

#166. Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:

#167. The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:

#168. Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?

#169. If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would

#170. Reduced take-off thrust

#171. What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?

#172. What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?

#173. How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?

#174. Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?

#175. Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?

#176. For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?

#177. How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals ?

#178. The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:

#179. Which of the following answers is true?

#180. Which statement is correct?

#181. Which statement is correct?

#182. Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?

#183. Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?

#184. How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°?

#185. The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than:

#186. If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is correct ?

#187. During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured takeoff runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off surface are:- 1747 m, all engines operating- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged.Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?

#188. During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are:- 3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1- 2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equalThe take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:

#189. During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.

#190. In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:

#191. If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?

#192. In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?

#193. Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?

#194. Balanced V1 is selected

#195. A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:

#196. If the field length limited take off mass has been calculated using a Balanced Field Length technique, the use of any additional clearway in take off performance calculations may allow

#197. Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes should be checked. For what reason?

#198. Concerning the landing gear, which of the following factors would limit the takeoff mass?

#199. Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?

#200. The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:

#201. May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ?

#202. A higher outside air temperature (OAT)

#203. If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will:

#204. Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM?

#205. In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is

#206. The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position5 N engines at the take-off thrust6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runwayThe correct statements are:

#207. The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only specified for:

#208. At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?

#209. A head wind will:

#210. The second segment begins

#211. For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be avoided

#212. Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?

#213. The first segment of the take-off flight path ends

#214. The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by

#215. During take-off the third segment begins:

#216. The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?

#217. Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?

#218. On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the same power and assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient?

#219. A four jet-engined aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14.Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newtons. The gradient of climb is:(given: g= 10 m/s²)

#220. Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment ?

#221. Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engineg = 10 m/s²Drag = 72 569 NMinimum gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7%SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) / WeightThe maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions is:

#222. The net flight path climb gradient after take-off compared to the gross climb gradient is:

#223. An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The half-width of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least:

#224. When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance / climb performance:

#225. Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?

#226. Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?

#227. In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed

#228. Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?

#229. What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?

#230. You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ?

#231. If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude is

#232. Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be:

#233. Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy:

#234. How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere?

#235. A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?

#236. With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be flown at approximately:

#237. What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained?(Assume a constant mass.)

#238. Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct ? (from low to high speeds)

#239. A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following statements is correct?

#240. Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical?The speeds for:

#241. What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?

#242. A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?

#243. Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb whereas

#244. As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb

#245. The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass

#246. Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram is correct?

#247. The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:

#248. Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?

#249. Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the ""Buffet Onset Boundary"" graph?

#250. Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?

#251. The aerodynamic ceiling

#252. The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin

#253. Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ?

#254. Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct ?

#255. With all other things remaining unchanged and with T the outside static air temperature expressed in degrees K, the hourly fuel consumption of a turbojet powered aeroplane in a cruise flight with a constant Mach Number and zero headwind,is as follows:

#256. Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:

#257. A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of:

#258. At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming the engines specific consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly consumption is approximately increased by:

#259. For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on specific range?

#260. Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:

#261. With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:

#262. Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude.The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:

#263. A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow change?

#264. During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the maximum range speed, the IAS / the drag will:

#265. The lowest point of the drag or thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane, respectively, is the point for

#266. For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed' ?

#267. Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a jet aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent out of the origin, the point of contact determines the speed of:

#268. A jet aeroplane is performing a maximum range flight.The speed corresponds to:

#269. In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range corresponds with:

#270. The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel between two airfields. Which flight procedure should the pilot fly?

#271. Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'?

#272. ""Maximum endurance""

#273. The speed for maximum endurance

#274. Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)?

#275. Long range cruise is selected as

#276. The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which power required is a minimum

#277. Moving the center of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged)

#278. The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit

#279. The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet

#280. The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet

#281. Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating?

#282. At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine

#283. At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine

#284. The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM

#285. The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane

#286. At speeds below minimum drag

#287. A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires

#288. The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.

#289. The optimum cruise altitude is

#290. The optimum cruise altitude increases

#291. Below the optimum cruise altitude

#292. Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?

#293. On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:

#294. If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight

#295. In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engined aeroplane only depends on:

#296. Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best fuel mileage) is correct?

#297. An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to :

#298. ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of

#299. A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed

#300. The drift down requirements are based on:

#301. Which of the following statements is correct?

#302. With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:

#303. After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be applied?

#304. 'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied

#305. If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down procedure

#306. With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is

#307. The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:

#308. Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct?

#309. During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin to low speed buffet will:

#310. During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:

#311. An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent?Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.

#312. The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because the :

#313. A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which of the following speed limits is most likely to be exceeded first?

#314. Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?

#315. Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?

#316. Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind)

#317. A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m. Which of the following is the maximum landing distance for a dry runway?

#318. For a turbojet aeroplane, what is the maximum landing distance for wet runways when the landing distance available at an aerodrome is 3000 m?

#319. The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:

#320. For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct?

#321. Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbopropeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?

#322. To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:

#323. Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a change in the landing reference speed (VREF):

#324. What margin above the stall speed is provided by the landing reference speed VREF?

#325. Required runway length at destination airport for turboprop aeroplanes

#326. The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with international requirements, the following margins above stall speed in landing configuration:

#327. The maximum mass for landing could be limited by

#328. The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus

#329. The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus

#330. The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:

#331. By what factor must the landing distance available (dry runway) for a turbojet powered aeroplane be multiplied to find the landing distance required? (planning phase for destination).

#332. According to JAR-OPS 1, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?

#333. If a flight is performed with a higher ""Cost Index"" at a given mass which of the following will occur?

#334. An aircraft is flying at MACH 0.84 at FL 330. The static air temperature is -48°C and the headwind component 52 Kt. At 1338 UTC the controller requests the pilot to cross the meridian of 030W at 1500 UTC. Given the distance to go is 570 NM, the reduced MACH No. should be:

#335. According to the chart the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 8500 ft. The meteorological data gives an outside air temperature of -20°C at FL 85. The QNH, given by a met. station at an elevation of 4000ft, is 1003 hPa.What is the minimum pressure altitude which should be flown according to the given MOCA?

#336. VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than

#337. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?Given: FL 75, departure aerodrome elevation 1500 ft, QNH = 1023 hPa, temperature = ISA, 1 hPa = 30 ft

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