RADIO AIDS OX BACK QUESTIONS – Air – DGCA Question Bank For Politics

#1. When would VDF be used for a position fix?

When an aircraft declares an emergency on any frequency.

When first talking to a FIR on crossing an international boundary.

When joining controlled airspace from uncontrolled airspace.

When declaring an emergency on 121.500 MHz.

#2. What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VDF letdown?

VHF radio

VOR

VOR/DME

None

#3. Which of the following is an advantage of a VDF let down?

no equipment required in the aircraft

no special equipment required in the aircraft or on the ground

only a VHF radio is needed in the aircraft

it is pilot interpreted, so ATC is not required

#4. What is the maximum range at which a VDF station at 325 ft can provide a service to an aircraft at FL080?

134nm

107nm

91nm

114nm

#5. Which of the following statements regarding VHF direction finding (VDF) is most accurate?

it is simple and only requires a VHF radio on the ground

It is simple and requires a VHF radio and DF equipment in the aircraft

it is simple requiring only VHF radios on the ground and in the aircraft

it uses line of sight propagation

#6. What is the wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 375 kHz?

8 m

80m

800m

8000m

#7. A NDB transmits a signal pattern which is

a 30 Hz polar diagram

omni-directional

bi-lobal pattern

a beam rotating at 30 Hz

#8. The accuracy of ADF within the DOC by day is:

+/-1°

+/-2°

+/-5°

+/-10°

#9. Given that the compass heading is 270°, the deviation is 2°W, the variation is 30°E and the relative bearing of a beacon is 316°, determine the QDR:

044

048

074

224

#10. Two NDB's, one 20 nm from the coast and the other 50 nm further inland. Assuming coastal error is the same for each, from which NDB will an aircraft flying over the sea receive the greatest error?

the NDB at 20 nm

the NDB at 50 nm

same when the relative bearing is 090/270

same when the relative bearing is 180/360

#11. Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on the accuracy of ADF bearings?

interference from other NDB's particularly by day

interference between aircraft aerials

interference from other NDB's, particularly at night

frequency drift at the ground station

#12. Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF?

selective availability, coastal refraction, night effect

night effect, quadrantal error, lane slip

mountain effect, station interference, static interference

selective availability, coastal refraction, quadrantal error

#13. What action must be taken to receive a bearing from an ADF?

BFO on

Select the loop position

Both the loop and sense aerials must receive the signal

Select the LOOP position

#14. When is coastal error at its worst for an aircraft at low level?

beacon inland at an acute angle to the coast

beacon inland at 90° to the coast

beacon close to the coast at an acute angle to the coast

beacon close to the coast at 90° to the coast

#15. A radio beacon has a range of 10 nm. By what factor should the power be increased to achieve a range of 20 nm?

16

2

4

8

#16. Which of the following is the most significant error in ADF?

quadrantal error

coastal refraction

precipitation

static from Cb

#17. Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings?

static interference, height effect, lack of failure warning

station interference, mountain effect, selective availability

coastal refraction, slant range, night effect

lack of failure warning, station interference, static interference

#18. The allocated frequency coverage of NDB's is:

250 – 450 kHz

190 – 1750 kHz

108 – 117.95 MHz

200 – 500 kHz

#19. The principle used to measure VOR bearings is:

phase comparison

switched cardioids

difference in depth of modulation

pulse technique

#20. When converting VOR and ADF bearings to true, the variation at the …… should be used for VOR and at the …… for ADF.

aircraft, aircraft

aircraft, station

station, aircraft

station, station

#21. An aircraft flies from a VOR at 61N 013W to 58N 013W. The variation at the beacon is 13W and the variation at the aircraft is 5W. What radial is the aircraft on?

13

005

193

187

#22. In a conventional VOR the reference signal and the variable signal have a 30 Hz modulation. The variable signal modulation is produced by:

adding 30 Hz to the transmitted signal

a 30 Hz rotation producing a 30 Hz modulation

varying the amplitude up and down at +/-30 Hz

using Doppler techniques to produce a 30 Hz amplitude modulation

#23. If the VOR accuracy has a limit of 1.0°, what is the maximum cross track error at 200 nm?

3nm

2.5nm

2nm

3.5nm

#24. What is the maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and have the same identification

2000m

60m

600m

6m

#25. What is the maximum distance between VOR beacons designating the centreline of an airway (10 nm wide), if the expected VOR bearing error is 5.5°?

120nm

109nm

60nm

54nm

#26. On a CVOR the phase difference between the AM and FM signals is 30°. The VOR radial is:

210

030

330

150

#27. In a certain VORTAC installation the VOR is coding STN and the DME is coding STZ. This means that the distance between the two beacons is in excess of:

600m

100m

300m

2000m

#28. Using a 5 dot CDI, how many dots would show for an aircraft on the edge of an airway at 100 nm from the VOR beacon?

5

2.5

1.5

3

#29. The maximum range an aircraft at FL370 can receive transmissions from a VOR/DME at 800 ft is:

275nm

200nm

243nm

220nm

#30. When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly:

a constant track

a great circle track

a rhumb line track

a constant heading

#31. Which of the following is a valid frequency (MHz) for a VOR?

107.75

109.90

118.35

112.20

#32. Using a VOR beyond the limits of the DOC may result in:

loss of signal due to line of sight limitations

interference from other VOR's operating on the same frequenc

skywave contamination of the VOR signal

scalloping errors

#33. An aircraft is flying a heading of 090° along the equator, homing to a VOR. If variation at the aircraft is 10°E and 15°E at the VOR, what is the inbound radial?

075

105

285

255

#34. When identifying a co-located VOR/DME the following signals are heard in the Morse code every 30 seconds:

4 identifications in the same tone

4 identifications with the DME at a higher tone

4 identifications with the DME at a lower tone

no DME identification, but if the VOR identification is present and a range is indicated then this shows that both are serviceable

#35. What is the maximum range a transmission from a VOR beacon at 169 ft can be received by an aircraft at FL012

60 nm

80 nm

120 nm

220 nm

#36. An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are:

285, TO

105, TO

285, FROM

105, FROM

#37. When tracking the 090 radial outbound from a VOR, the track flown is:

a straight line

a rhumb line

a great circle

a constant true heading

#38. The frequency band of VOR is:

VHF

UHF

HF

LF & MF

#39. On which radial from a VOR at 61N025E (VAR 13°E) is an aircraft at 59N025E (VAR 20°E)?

160

347

193

167

#40. What is the minimum height an aircraft must be to receive signals from a VOR at 196 ft amsl at a range of 175 nm?

26000 ft

16000 ft

24000 ft

20000 ft

#41. For a conventional VOR a phase difference of 090° would be achieved by flying …… from the beacon:

West

North

East

South

#42. At a range of 200 nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft?

3.5 nm

1.75 nm

7 nm

1 nm

#43. The quoted accuracy of VOR is valid:

at all times

by day only

at all times except night

at all times except dawn and dusk

#44. Which of the following provides distance information?

DME

VOR

ADF

VDF

#45. Which of the following would give the best indication of speed?

a VOR on the flight plan route

a VOR off the flight plan route

a DME on the flight plan route

DME off the flight plan route

#46. What happens when a DME in the search mode fails to achieve lock-on?

it stays in the search mode, but reduces to 60 pulse pairs per second (ppps) after 100 seconds

it stays in the search mode, but reduces to 60 ppps after 15000 pulse pairs

it stays in the search mode at 150 ppps

alternates between search and memory modes every 10 seconds

#47. The most accurate measurement of speed by DME for an aircraft at 30000 ft will be when the aircraft is:

tracking towards the beacon at 10 nm

overhead the beacon

tracking away from the beacon at 100 nm

passing abeam the beacon at 5 nm

#48. A DME beacon will become saturated when more than about …… aircraft are interrogating the transponder.

10

50

100

200

#49. A typical DME frequency is:

1000 MHz

1300 MHz

1000 kHz

1575 MHz

#50. The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve lock on a DME at msl at a range of 210 nm. The reason for this is:

the beacon is saturated

the aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME

the aircraft is beyond line of sight range

the aircraft signal is too weak at that range to trigger a response

#51. The aircraft DME receiver accepts replies to its own transmissions but rejects replies to other aircraft transmissions because:

the PRF of the interrogations is unique to each aircraft

the pulse pairs from each aircraft have a unique amplitude modulation

the interrogation frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft

the interrogation and reply frequencies are separated by 63 MHz

#52. When an aircraft at FL360 is directly above a DME, at mean sea level, the range displayed will be:

6nm

9nm

0

12nm

#53. A DME frequency could be:

10 MHz

100 MHz

1000 MHz

10000 MHz

#54. A DME transceiver does not lock onto its own reflections because:

the PRF of the pulse pairs is jittered

it uses MTI

the interrogation and reply frequencies differ

the reflections will all fall within the flyback period

#55. A DME transceiver does not lock onto its own reflections because:

the PRF of the pulse pairs is jittered

it uses MTI

the interrogation and reply frequencies differ

the reflections will all fall within the flyback period

#56. What information does military TACAN provide for civil aviation users?

magnetic bearing

DME

Nothing

DME and magnetic bearing

#57. The DME in an aircraft flying at FL430 shows a range of 15 nm from a beacon at an elevation of 167 ft. The plan range is:

13.5 nm

16.5 nm

15 nm

17.6 nm

#58. What are the DME frequencies?

1030 & 1090 MHz

1030 – 1090 MHz

960 &1215 MHz

960 – 1215 MHz

#59. The time from the transmission of the interrogation pulse to the receipt of the reply from the DME ground station is 2000 microseconds (ignore the delay at the DME). The slant range is:

330 nm

185 nm

165 nm

370 nm

#60. The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that:

the DME is unserviceable

the DME is trying to lock onto range

the DME is trying to lock onto frequency

the DME is receiving no response from the ground station

#61. On a DME presentation the counters are continuously rotating. This indicates:

the DME is in the search mode

the DME is unserviceable

the DME is receiving no response from the transponder

The transponder is unserviceable

#62. An aircraft at FL200 is 220 nm from a DME at msl. The aircraft equipment fails to lock on to the DME. This is because:

DME is limited to 200 nm

The aircraft is too high to receive the signal

The aircraft is too low to receive the signal

The beacon is saturated

#63. On an ILS approach you receive more of the 90 Hz modulation than the 150 Hz modulation. The action you should take is:

fly left and up

fly left and down

fly right and up

fly right and down

#64. The errors of an ILS localiser (LLZ) beam are due to:

emission sidelobes

ground reflections

spurious signals from objects near the runway

interference from other systems operating on the same frequency

#65. The amplitude modulation of the ILS outer marker is ……. and it illuminates the …… light in the cockpit.

400 Hz, blue

1300 Hz, amber

400 Hz, amber

1300 Hz, blue

#66. The principle of operation of the ILS localiser transmitter is that it transmits two overlapping lobes on:

different frequencies with different phases

the same frequency with different phases

the same frequency with different amplitude modulations

different frequencies with different amplitude modulations

#67. The ILS glideslope transmitter generates false glidepaths because of:

ground returns from the vicinity of the transmitter

back scattering of the signals

multiple lobes in the radiation pattern

reflections from obstacles in the vicinity of the transmitter

#68. A category III ILS system provides accurate guidance down to:

the surface of the runway

less than 50 ft

less than 100 ft

less than 200 ft

#69. A HSI compass rose is stuck on 200°. When the aircraft is lined up on the centreline of the ILS localiser for runway 25, the localiser needle will be:

left of the centre

centred

right of the centre

centred with the fail flag showing

#70. The coverage of the ILS glideslope with respect to the localiser centreline is:

+/-10° to 8 nm

+/-10° to 25 nm

+/-8° to 10 nm

+/-35° to 17 nm

#71. The middle marker is usually located at a range of ……, with an audio frequency of …… and illuminates the …… light.

4-6 nm, 1300 Hz, white

1 km, 400 Hz, white

1 km, 1300 Hz, amber

1 km, 400 Hz, amber

#72. The sequence of marker colours when flying an ILS approach is:

white, blue, amber

blue, white, amber

blue, amber, white

amber, blue, white

#73. The sensitive area of an ILS is the area aircraft may not enter when:

ILS operations are in progress

category 1 ILS operations are in progress

category II/III ILS operations are in progress

the ILS is undergoing calibration

#74. The ILS localiser is normally positioned:

300 m from the downwind end of the runway

300 m from the threshold

300 m from the upwind end of the runway

200 m abeam the threshold

#75. The audio frequency of the outer marker is:

3000 Hz

400 Hz

1300 Hz

1000 Hz

#76. An aircraft is flying downwind outside the coverage of the ILS. The CDI indications will be:

unreliable in azimuth and elevation

reliable in azimuth, unreliable in elevation

no indications will be shown

reliable in azimuth and elevation

#77. The frequency band of the ILS glidepath is

UHF

VHF

SHF

VLF

#78. In which band does the ILS glidepath operate?

metric

centimetric

decimetric

hectometric

#79. The coverage of MLS is …… either side of the centreline to a distance of

40°, 40 nm

40° 20 nm

20°, 20 nm

20°, 40 nm

#80. Distance on MLS is measured by:

measuring the time taken for the primary radar pulse to travel from the MLS transmitter to the aircraft receiver

measuring the time taken for the secondary radar pulse to travel from the MLS transmitter to the aircraft receiver

phase comparison between the azimuth and elevation beams

co-located DME

#81. Which of the following is an advantage of MLS?

can be used in inhospitable terrain

uses the same aircraft equipment as ILS

has a selective access ability

is not affected by heavy precipitation

#82. The frequency band of MLS is:

UHF

VHF

SHF

VLF

#83. Primary radar operates on the principle of:

transponder interrogation

pulse technique

phase comparison

continuous wave emission

#84. The definition of a radar display will be best with

narrow beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth

narrow beamwidth and wide pulsewidth

wide beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth

wide beamwidth and wide pulsewidth

#85. The main advantage of a continuous wave radar over a pulsed radar is

more complex equipment but better resolution and accuracy

removes the minimum range restriction

smaller more compact equipment

permits measurement of Doppler in addition to improved range and bearing

#86. Which of the following systems use pulse technique? 1. secondary surveillance radar 2. airborne weather radar 3. distance measuring equipment 4. primary radar

all the above

2 and 4 only

2 only

1 and 3 only

#87. To double the range of a primary radar, the power must be increased by a factor of:

2

4

8

16

#88. In a primary pulsed radar the ability to discriminate in azimuth is a factor of:

Pulse width

Beamwidth

Pulse recurrence rate

Rate of rotation

#89. The maximum range of a ground radar is limited by:

pulse width

peak power

average power

pulse recurrence rate

#90. What does pulse recurrence rate refer to?

the number of cycles per second

the number of pulses per second

the ratio of pulse width to pulse repetition period

the delay known as flyback or dead time

#91. The maximum PRF required for a range of 50 nm is:

300 pulses per second (pps)

600 pps

1620 pps

3280 pps

#92. The best radar for measuring very short ranges is:

a continuous wave primary radar

a pulsed secondary radar

a pulsed primary radar

a continuous wave secondary radar

#93. Which is the most suitable radar for measuring short ranges?

millimetric pulse

continuous wave primary

centimetric pulse

continuous wave secondary

#94. The main advantage of a slotted scanner is

reduces sidelobes and directs more energy into the main beam

removes the need for azimuth slaving

sidelobe suppression

can produce simultaneous map and weather information

#95. The maximum unambiguous (theoretical) range for a PRF of 1200 pps is:

134 nm

180 nm

67 nm

360 nm

#96. The PRF of a radar is 450 pps. If the speed of light is 300000 kps, what is the maximum range of the radar?

150 km

333 km

666 km

1326 km

#97. The best picture on a primary radar will be obtained using:

low frequency, narrow beam

short wavelength, narrow beam

high frequency, wide beam

long wavelength, wide beam

#98. Which of the following is a primary radar system?

SSR

DME

GPS

AWR

#99. On what principle does primary ATC radar work?

pulse technique

pulse comparison

continuous wave

transponder interrogation

#100. ATC area surveillance radars will normally operate to a maximum range of:

100 nm

200 nm

300 nm

400 nm

#101. An area surveillance radar is most likely to use a frequency of:

330 MHz

600 MHz

10 GHz

15 GHz

#102. Short range aerodrome radars will have …… wavelengths

millimetric

centimetric

decimetric

metric

#103. The ASMR operates in the …… band, the antenna rotates at …… rpm can …… distinguish between aircraft types.

UHF, 120, sometimes

SHF, 60, always

UHF, 120, never

SHF, 60, sometimes

#104. The frequency band of most ATC radars and weather radars is:

UHF

SHF

VHF

EHF

#105. The airborne weather radar (AWR) cannot detect

snow

moderate rain

dry hail

wet hail

#106. The frequency of AWR is:

9375 MHz

937.5 MHz

93.75 GHz

9375 GHz

#107. The use of the AWR on the ground is:

not permitted

permitted provided reduced power is reduced

permitted provided special precautions are taken to safeguard personnel and equipment

only permitted to assist movement in low visibility conditions

#108. Which type of cloud does the AWR detect?

Cirro-cumulus

Alto-stratus

Cumulus

Stratus

#109. The AWR uses the cosecant squared beam in the …… mode.

WEA

CONT

MAP

MAN

#110. On the AWR display the most severe turbulence will be shown:

in flashing red

by a black hole

by a steep colour gradient

alternating red and white

#111. On an AWR colour display, the sequence of colours indicating increasing water droplet size is:

blue, green, red

green, yellow, red

black, amber, red

blue, amber, green

#112. In an AWR with a 5° beamwidth, how do you orientate the scanner to receive returns from clouds at or above your level?

0° tilt

2.5° uptilt

2.5° downtilt

5° uptilt

#113. The ISO-ECHO circuit is incorporated in the AWR:

to allow ground mapping

to alert pilots to the presence of cloud

to display areas of turbulence in cloud

to allow simultaneous mapping and cloud detection

#114. The main factors which affect whether an AWR will detect a cloud are:

the size of the water droplets and the diameter of the antenna reflector

the scanner rotation rate and the frequency/wavelength

the size of the water droplets and the wavelength/frequency

the size of the water droplets and the range of the cloud

#115. In an AWR with a colour CRT, areas of greatest turbulence are indicated by:

iso-echo areas coloured black

large areas of flashing red

iso-echo areas with no colour

most rapid change of colour

#116. With the AWR set at 100 nm range a large cloud appears at 50 nm. If the range is reduced to 50 nm:

the image will decrease in area and remain where it is

the image will increase in area and move to the top of the screen

the image will increase in area and move to the bottom of the screen

the image will decrease in area and move to the top of the screen

#117. As a storm intensifies, the colour sequence on the AWR display will change:

black, yellow, amber

green, yellow, red

blue, green, orange

green, yellow, amber

#118. The cosecant squared beam is used for mapping in the AWR because:

a greater range can be achieved

wider beam is produced in azimuth to give a greater coverage

a larger area of ground is illuminated by the beam

it allows cloud detection to be effected whilst mapping

#119. On switching on the AWR a single line appears on the display. This means that:

the transmitter is unserviceable

the receiver is unserviceable

the CRT is not scanning

the antenna is not scanning

#120. The AWR can be used on the ground provided: i. the aircraft is clear of personnel, buildings and vehicles ii. conical beam is selected iii. maximum uptilt is selected iv. the AWR must never be operated on the ground

iv

i and iii

i, ii and iii

ii and iii

#121. Doppler navigation systems use …… to determine the aircraft groundspeed and drift.

Phase comparison of signals from ground station

DVOR

Frequency shift in signals reflected from the ground

DME range measurement

#122. Which axes is the AWR stabilised in?

Pitch, roll and yaw

Roll and yaw

Pitch and roll

Pitch only

#123. With normal SSR mode C altitude coding the aircraft replies by sending back a train of up to 12 pulses contained between 2 framing pulses with:

4096 codes in 4 blocks

2048 codes in 3 blocks

4096 codes in 3 blocks

2048 codes in 4 blocks

#124. Why is the effect of returns from storms not a problem with SSR?

the frequency is too high

SSR does not use the echo principle

The PRF is jittered

By the use of MTI to remove stationary and slow moving returns

#125. The advantages of SSR mode S are:

improved resolution, TCAS

data link, reduced voice communications

TCAS, no RT communications

better resolution, selective interrogation

#126. Which SSR mode A code should be selected when entering European airspace from an area where no code has been allocated?

7000

7500

2000

0000

#127. The accuracy of SSR mode C altitude as displayed to the air traffic controller is:

+/-25 ft

+/-50 ft

+/-75 ft

+/-100 ft

#128. The SSR ground transceiver interrogates on …… and receives responses on ……

1030 MHz, 1030 MHz

1030 MHz, 1090 MHz

1090 MHz, 1030 MHz

1090 MHz, 1090 MHz

#129. The vertical position provided by SSR mode C is referenced to:

QNH unless QFE is in use

1013.25 HPa

QNH

WGS84 datum

#130. Why is a secondary radar display free from weather clutter?

the frequencies are too low to detect water droplets

the frequencies are too high to detect water droplets

moving target indication is used to suppress the static generated by water droplets

the principle of the return of echoes is not used

#131. The availability of 4096 codes in SSR is applicable to mode:

A

B

C

All

#132. With reference to SSR, what code is used to indicate transponder altitude failure?

9999

0000

4096

7600

#133. LORAN C is available:

globally

in oceanic areas

in continental areas

in specified areas

#134. The frequencies used by LORAN C are:

70 – 130 kHz

90 – 110 kHz

108 – 112 MHz

190 – 1750 kHz

#135. The principle of operation of LORAN C is:

differential range by phase comparison

differential range by pulse technique

range by pulse technique

range by phase comparison

#136. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:

reduce ionospheric and tropospheric errors

determine satellite range

eliminate satellite clock and ephemeris errors

remove receiver clock error

#137. The MDA for a non-precision approach using NAVSTAR/GPS is based on:

barometric altitude

radio altimeter

GPS altitude

GPS or barometric altitude

#138. If, during a manoeuvre, a satellite being used for position fixing is shadowed by the wing, the effect on position will be:

none

the position will degrade

another satellite will be selected, so there will be no degradation of position

the GPS will maintain lock using reflections of the signals from the fuselage

#139. The time required for a GNSS receiver to download the satellite almanac for the NAVSTAR/ GPS is:

12.5 minutes

12 hours

30 seconds

15 minutes

#140. The effect of the ionosphere on NAVSTAR/GPS accuracy is:

only significant for satellites close to the horizon

minimised by averaging the signals

minimised by the receivers using a model of the ionosphere to correct the signals

negligible

#141. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation comprises:

24 satellites in 6 orbits

24 satellites in 4 orbits

24 satellites in 3 orbits

24 satellites in 8 orbits

#142. Selective availability may be used to degrade the accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS position. This is achieved by:

introducing an offset in the satellites clocks

random dithering of the broadcast satellites clock time

random dithering of the broadcast satellites X, Y & Z co-ordinates

introducing an offset in the broadcast satellites X, Y & Z co-ordinates

#143. The positioning of a GNSS aerial on an aircraft is:

in the fin

on the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver

on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity

under the fuselage

#144. The NAVSTAR/GPS space segment:

provides X, Y & Z co-ordinates and monitoring of the accuracy of the satellite data

provides X, Y, Z & T co-ordinates and the constellation data

monitors the accuracy of the satellite data and provides system time

provides geographic position and UTC

#145. Concerning NAVSTAR/GPS orbits, which of the following statements is correct?

the inclination of the orbits is 55° with an orbital period of 12 hours

the inclination of the orbits is 55° with an orbital period of 24 hours

the orbits are geostationary to provide global coverage

provides geographic position and UTC

#146. Concerning NAVSTAR/GPS orbits, which of the following statements is correct?

the inclination of the orbits is 55° with an orbital period of 12 hours

the inclination of the orbits is 55° with an orbital period of 24 hours

the orbits are geostationary to provide global coverage

the orbits are inclined at 65° with an orbital period of 11 hours 15 minutes

#147. NAVSTAR GPS receiver clock error is removed by:

regular auto-synchronisation with the satellite clocks

adjusting the pseudo-ranges to determine the error

synchronisation with the satellite clocks on initialisation

having an appropriate atomic time standard within the receiver

#148. The contents of the navigation and systems message from NAVSTAR/GPS SVs include:

satellite clock error, almanac data, ionospheric propagation information

satellite clock error, almanac data, satellite position error

position accuracy verification, satellite clock time and clock error

ionospheric propagation information, X, Y & Z co-ordinates and corrections, satellite clock time and error

#149. The NAVSTAR/GPS segments are:

space, control, user

space, control, ground

space, control, air

space, ground, air

#150. The preferred GNSS receiver for airborne application is:

multiplex

multi-channel

sequential

fast multiplex

#151. The orbital height of geostationary satellites is:

19330 km

35800 km

10898 nm

10313 nm

#152. The best accuracy from satellite systems will be provided by:

NAVSTAR/GPS and TNSS transit

GLONASS and COSPAS/SARSAT

GLONASS and TNSS transit

NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS

#153. The azimuth and elevation of the satellites is:

determined by the satellite and transmitted to the receiver

determined by the receiver from the satellite almanac data

transmitted by the satellite as part of the almanac

determined by the receiver from the broadcast satellite X, Y, Z & T data

#154. The skysearch carried out by a GNSS receiver:

is done prior to each fix

is done when the receiver position is in error

involves the receiver downloading the almanac from each satellite before determining which satellites are in view

is the procedure carried out by the monitoring stations to check the accuracy of the satellite data

#155. An aircraft GNSS receiver is using 5 satellites for RAIM. If the receiver deselects one satellite then the flight should be continued:

using 4 satellites with the pilot monitoring the receiver output

using alternative navigation systems

using alternative radio navigation systems only

using inertial reference systems only

#156. The WGS84 model of the earth is:

a geoid

a sphere

an exact model of the earth

an ellipse

#157. The frequency band of the NAVSTAR/GPS L1 and L2 frequencies is:

VHF

UHF

EHF

SHF

#158. The number of satellites required to produce a 4D fix is:

3

4

5

6

#159. How many satellites are needed for a 2D fix?

2

3

4

5

#160. Which of the following statements concerning ionospheric propagation errors is true?

they are significantly reduced by the use of RAIM

they are eliminated using differential techniques

they are significantly reduced when a second frequency is available

transmitting the state of the ionosphere to the receivers enables the error to reduced to less than one metre

#161. Using differential GNSS for a non-precision approach, the height reference is:

barometric

GNSS

radio

radio or GNSS

#162. The number of satellites required to provide a 3D fix without RAIM is:

3

4

5

6

#163. The number of satellites required for a fully operational NAVSTAR/GPS is:

21

18

24

30

#164. Unauthorised' civilian users of NAVSTAR/GPS can access:

the P and Y codes

the P code

the C/A and P codes

the C/A code

#165. When using GPS to fly airways, what is the vertical reference used?

barometric

GPS height

radio altitude

average of barometric and GPS

#166. The nav/system message from GLONASS and NAVSTAR/GPS is found in the …… band.

SHF

UHF

VHF

EHF

#167. Which GNSS system can be used for IFR flights in Europe?

NAVSTAR/GPS

GLONASS

COSPAS/SARSAT

TNSS transit

#168. During flight using NAVSTAR/GPS and conventional navigation systems, you see a large error between the positions given by the systems. The action you should take is:

continue the flight in VMC

continue using the conventional systems

continue using the GPS

switch off the faulty system after determining which one is in error

#169. What information can a GPS fix using four satellites give you?

latitude and longitude

latitude, longitude, altitude and time

latitude, longitude and altitude

latitude, longitude and time

#170. What are the basic elements transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites? i. offset of the satellite clock from GMT ii. ephemeris data iii. health data iv. ionospheric delays v. solar activity

i, ii, iii, iv and v

i, i and iii

i, i and iv

ii, iii and iv

#171. What is the purpose of the GPS control segment?

to control the use of the satellites by unauthorised users

to monitor the satellites in orbit

to maintain the satellites in orbit

degrade the accuracy of satellites for unauthorised users

#172. In GNSS a fix is obtained by:

measuring the time taken for signals from a minimum number of satellites to reach the aircraft.

measuring the time taken for the aircraft transmissions to travel to a number of satellites in known positions and return to the aircraft

measuring the phase angle of the signals from a number of satellites in known positions

#173. The inclination of a satellite is:

the angle between the SV orbit and the equator

the angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane

90° minus the angle between the SV orbit and the equator

90° minus the angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane

#174. How is the distance between the NAVSTAR/GPS SV and the receiver determined?

by referencing the SV and receiver positions to WGS84

by synchronising the receiver clock with the SV clock

by measuring the time from transmission to reception and multiplying by the speed of light

by measuring the time from transmission to reception and dividing by the speed of light

#175. The distance measured between a satellite and a receiver is known as a pseudo-range because:

it is measured using pseudo-random codes

it includes receiver clock error

satellite and receiver are continually moving in relation to each other

it is measured against idealised Keplerian orbits

#176. The task of the control segment is to:

determine availability to users

monitor the SV ephemeris and clock

apply selective availability

all of the above

#177. To provide 3D fixing with RAIM and allowing for the loss of one satellite requires …… SVs:

4

5

6

7

#178. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:

differentiate between satellites

pass satellite ephemeris information

pass satellite time and ephemeris information

pass satellite time, ephemeris and other information

#179. An ‘all in view' satellite navigation receiver is one which:

monitors all 24 satellites

tracks selected satellites

selects and tracks all (in view) satellites and selects the best four

tracks the closest satellites

#180. Which GPS frequencies are available for commercial air transport?

1227.6 MHz only

1575.42 MHz only

1227.6 MHz and 1575.42 MHz

1227.6 MHz or 1575.42 MHz

#181. Which GNSS is authorised for use on European airways?

GLONASS

NAVSTAR

Galileo

COSPAS/SARSAT

#182. In GPS on which frequencies are both the C/A and P codes transmitted?

both frequencies

the higher frequency

neither frequency

the lower frequency

#183. The orbits of the NAVSTAR GPS satellites are inclined at:

55° to the earth's axis

55° to the plane of the equator

99° to the earth's axis

99° to the plane of the equator

#184. The function of the receiver in the GNSS user segment is to:

interrogate the satellites to determine range

track the satellites to calculate time

track the satellites to calculate range

determine position and assess the accuracy of that position

#185. In which frequency band are the L1 and L2 frequencies of GNSS?

SHF

VHF

UHF

EHF

#186. Which of the following statements concerning differential GPS (DGPS) is true?

Local area DGPS gives the same improvement in accuracy regardless of distance from the station

DGPS removes SV ephemeris and clock errors and propagation errors

DGPS can improve the accuracy of SA affected position information.

Wide area DGPS accuracy improves the closer the aircraft is to a ground station

#187. The visibility of GPS satellites is:

dependent on the location of the user

greatest at the equator

greatest at the poles

the same at all points on and close to the surface of the earth

#188. In the approach phase with a two dot lateral deviation HSI display, a one dot deviation from track would represent:

5 nm

0.5 nm

5°

0.5°

#189. The required accuracy of a precision RNAV (P-RNAV) system is:

0.25 nm standard deviation or better

0.5 nm standard deviation or better

1 nm standard deviation or better

1.5 nm standard deviation or better

#190. The ETA generated by the FMS will be most accurate:

when the forecast W/V equals the actual W/V and the FMS calculated Mach No. equals the actual Mach No.

If the groundspeed and position are accurate.

If the forecast W/V at take-off is entered.

If the groundspeed is correct and the take-off time has been entered.

#191. When is the FMS position likely to be least accurate?

TOD

TOC

Just after take-off.

On final approach.

#192. For position fixing the B737-800 FMC uses:

DME/DME

VOR/DME

DME/DME or VOR/DME

Any combination of VOR, DME and ADF

#193. When using a two dot HSI, a deviation of one dot from the computed track represents:

2°

5°

5 nm

2 nm

#194. An aircraft, using a 2D RNAV computer, is 12 nm from the phantom station, 25 nm from the VOR/DME designating the phantom station and the phantom station is 35 nm from the VOR/ DME. The range read out in the aircraft will be:

12 nm

25 nm plan range

35 nm

25 nm slant range

#195. The FMC position is:

the average of the IRS positions

the average of the IRS and radio navigation positions

computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions

computer generated from the radio navigation positions

#196. The JAR25 recommended colour for a downpath waypoint is:

white

green

magenta

cyan

#197. The JAR25 recommended colour for the present track line in the expanded modes is:

white

green

magenta

cyan

#198. The range arcs in the expanded and map modes are recommended by JAR25 to be coloured:

white

green

magenta

cyan

#199. The JAR25 recommendation for the colour of a VORTAC which is not in use by the FMC is:

green

white

magenta

cyan

#200. When midway between two waypoints, how can the pilot best check the progress of the aircraft?

by using the ATD at the previous waypoint

by using the computed ETA for the next waypoint

by using the ATA at the previous waypoint

by using the ETA at the destination

#201. Which of the following can be input manually to the FMC using a maximum of 5 alphanumerics?

waypoints, latitude and longitude, SIDs and STARs

ICAO aerodrome designators, navigation facilities, SIDs and STARs

Waypoints, airways designators, latitude and longitude

Navigation facilities, reporting points, airways designators

#202. The inputs to the EHSI display during automatic flight include:

auto-throttle, IRS and FMC

FCC, FMC and ADC

IRS, FMC and radio navigation facilities

IRS, ADC and FCC

#203. The inputs the pilot will make to the FMC during the pre-flight initialisation will include:

ETD, aircraft position, and planned route

Planned route, aircraft position, and departure runway

Navigation data base, aircraft position and departure aerodrome

Departure runway, planned route and ETD.

#204. The JAR25 recommended colour for an active waypoint is:

amber

magenta

green

cyan

#205. The JAR25 recommended colour for an off-route waypoint is:

white

magenta

green

cyan

#206. The JAR25 recommended colour for the aircraft symbol is:

white

magenta

green

cyan

#207. The JAR25 recommended colour for the active route is:

white

magenta

green

cyan

#208. In the NAV and EXP NAV modes one dot on the EHSI represents:

2nm

2°

5 nm

5°

#209. The phantom station in a 2D RNAV system may be generated by:

VOR/DME

Twin VOR

Twin DME

Any of the above

#210. The operation of a 2D RNAV system may be seriously downgraded:

because the computer cannot determine if the aircraft is within the DOC of the programmed facilities

because the computer cannot determine if the heading and altitude input are in error

because the pilot cannot verify the correct frequency has been selected

if the selected navigation facility is in excess of about 70 nm

#211. RAIM is achieved:

by ground monitoring stations determining the satellite range errors which are relayed to receivers via geo-stationary satellites

by ground stations determining the X, Y & Z errors and passing the corrections to receivers using pseudolites

within the receiver

any of the above

#212. The colour recommended in JAR25 for engaged modes is:

green

magenta

cyan

white

#213. The colour recommended in JAR25 for armed modes is:

green

yellow

white

magenta

#214. The colour recommended in JAR25 for the display of turbulence is:

red

black

white or magenta

amber

#215. The colour recommended in JAR25 for the active route is

green

magenta

cyan

amber

#216. The FMS database can be:

altered by the pilots between the 28 day updates

read and altered by the pilots

only read by the pilots

altered by the pilots every 28 days

#217. The JAR25 colour for selected heading is:

green

magenta

red

white

#218. Refer to Appendix A diagram C. What is the current drift?

4° left

12° left

4° right

12° right

#219. According to JAR25, for what type of message is the colour red used?

warnings, cautions, abnormal sources

flight envelope, system limits, engaged mode

cautions, abnormal sources, engaged mode

warnings, flight envelope, system limits

#220. In the B737-400 EFIS which component generates the visual display?

flight control computer (FCC)

FMC

symbol generator

navigation database

#221. When is the IRS position updated?

continuously by the FMC

at VOR beacons on route by the pilots

at significant waypoints only

on the ground only

#222. Refer to Appendix A. Which diagram is the MAP mode?

D

F

E

C

#223. Refer to diagram E of Appendix A. The track from ZAPPO to BURDY is

205°(T)

205°(M)

064°(T)

064°(M)

#224. Refer to diagram B of Appendix A. The aircraft is:

right of the centreline and above the glidepath

left of the centreline and below the glidepath

right of the centreline and below the glidepath

left of the centreline and above the glidepath

#225. Refer to Appendix A. Diagram F represents:

NAV

EXP VOR

VOR

ILS

#226. The navigation database in the FMS:

may be modified by the pilot to meet routing requirements

is read only

may be modified by the operations staff to meet routing requirements

may be modified by national aviation authorities to meet national requirements

#227. In accordance with JAR25, which features on an EFIS display are coloured cyan?

engaged modes

the sky

the flight director bar(s)

system limits and flight envelope

#228. In an EHSI the navigation information comes from:

INS, weather mapping, radio navigation

FMC, radio navigation

IRS, radio navigation, TAS and drift

FMC, weather mapping, radio navigation

#229. On an EFIS display the pictured symbol represents:

DME

VOR/DME

VORTAC

aerodrome

#230. According to ICAO (Annex 11), the definition of an RNAV system is:

one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified limits of self contained on-board systems or a combination of the two

one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified limits of self contained on-board systems but not a combination of the two

one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids only

one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the specified limits of self contained on-board systems.

#231. Which of the following is independent of external inputs?

INS

Direct reading magnetic compass

VOR/DME

ADF

#232. The track line on an EFIS display indicates:

that a manual track has been selected

that a manual heading has been selected

the actual aircraft track over the ground, which will coincide with the aircraft heading when there is zero drift

the aircraft actual track which will coincide with the planned track when there is zero drift

#233. The JAR25 colour recommended for the display of current data is:

yellow

red

magenta

white

#234. The EHSI is showing 5° fly right with a TO indication. The aircraft heading is 280°(M) and the required track is 270°. The radial is:

275

265

085

095

#235. On the B737-400 EHSI what happens if the selected VOR fails?

the display blanks and a fail warning appears

the deviation bar is removed

a fail flag is displayed alongside the display bar

the display flashes

#236. In an RNAV system which combination of external reference will give the most accurate position?

GPS/rho

Rho/theta

Rho/rho

GPS/theta

#237. If the signal from a VOR is lost, how is this shown on the B737-400 EHSI display?

by removal of the deviation bar and pointer

by showing a fail flag alongside the deviation bar

a flashing red FAIL message appears in the frequency location

an amber FAIL message appears in the frequency location

#238. The colour used on the B737-400 EHSI weather display to show turbulence is:

magenta

flashing red

white or magenta

high colour gradient

#239. Refer to diagram D of Appendix A. The current aircraft track is:

130°

133°

156°

165°

#240. Refer to appendix A diagram C. The wind velocity is:

129°(M)/20 ms-1

129°(T)/20 kt

129°(M)/20kt

129°(T)/20 ms-1

#241. In order that a waypoint designated by a VOR can be used by a RNAV system:

the VOR must be identified by the pilot

the VOR must be within range when the waypoint is inpu

the VOR need not be in range when input or used

the VOR need not be in range when input but must be when used

#242. Which EHSI modes cannot show AWR information?

FULL VOR/ILS/NAV and MAP

PLAN, CTR MAP and EXP VOR/ILS/NAV

CTR MAP and PLAN

PLAN and FULL VOR/ILS/NAV

#243. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation comprises:

6 SVs each in 4 orbits

4 SVs each in 6 orbits

8 SVs each in 3 orbits

3 SVs each in 8 orbits

#244. Comparing the L1 and L2 signals helps with the reduction of which GNSS error?

tropospheric propagation

SV ephemeris

SV clock

Ionospheric propagation

#245. The normal maximum range for an ATC surveillance radar is:

50 nm

150 nm

250 nm

350 nm

#246. The cause of a RNAV giving erratic readings would be:

the aircraft is in the cone of confusion of the phantom station

the aircraft is beyond line of sight range of the phantom station

the aircraft is beyond line of sight range of the reference station

the aircraft is outside the DOC of the reference station

#247. Flying an ILS approach with a 3° glideslope referenced to 50 ft above the threshold, an aircraft at 4.6 nm should be at an approximate height of:

1400 ft

1380 ft

1500 ft

1450 ft

#248. The height of the GPS constellation is

19300 km

20200 km

10900 km

35800 km

#249. Which type of radar could give an indication of the shape and sometimes the type of the aircraft?

area surveillance radar

SSR

AWR

Aerodrome surface movement radar

#250. What are the ground components of MLS?

separate azimuth and elevation antennae with DME

separate azimuth and elevation antennae with middle and outer markers

combined azimuth and elevation antennae with DME

combined azimuth and elevation antennae with middle and outer markers

#251. The accuracy required of a basic area navigation (B-RNAV) system is:

+/-5 nm on 90% of occasions

all the time

+/-5 nm on 95% of occasions

+/-5 nm on 75% of occasions

#252. What function does the course line computer perform?

Uses VOR/DME information to direct the aircraft to the facility

Uses VOR/DME information to direct the aircraft along a specified track

Converts VOR/DME information into HSI directions to maintain the planned track

Uses VOR/DME information to determine track and distance to a waypoint

#253. The emissions from a non-directional beacon (NDB) are:

a cardioid with a 30 Hz rotation rate

omni-directional

a phase-compared signal

a frequency modulated continuous wave (FMCW)

#254. How does night effect affect ADF?

Causes false bearings as the goniometer locks onto the skywave

Skywave interference which affects the null and is worst at dawn and dusk

Interference from other NDB's which is worst at dusk and when due east of the station

Phase shift in the received signal giving random bearing errors

#255. What is an ADC input to the FMC?

Heading

VOR/DME position

TAS

Groundspeed and drift

#256. A typical frequency for DME would be:

300 MHz

600 MHz

900 MHz

1200 MHz

#257. When flying under IFR using GPS and a multi-sensor system:

If there is a discrepancy between the GPS and multi-sensor positions, then the multi-sensor position must be regarded as suspect

The GPS must be operating and its information displayed

The multi-sensor system must be operating and its information displayed

Both systems must be operating but only the primary system information needs to be displayed

#258. The indications from a basic RNAV are behaving erratically. The reason is likely to be:

the aircraft is in the cone of confusion of the phantom station

The aircraft is outside the DOC of the reference VOR/DME

the aircraft is below line of sight range of the reference VOR/DME

the aircraft is in the cone of confusion of the reference VOR

#259. What is the maximum PRF that allows detection of targets to a range of 50 km? (ignore any flyback time)

330 pulses per second (pps)

617 pps

3000 pps

1620 pps

#260. In NAVSTAR/GPS the space segment:

Provides the positional information to the receiver

the receiver interrogates the satellite and the satellite provides positional information

sends information for receiver to determine latitude, longitude and time

relays positional data from the control segment

#261. An accurate position fix on the EHSI will be provided by inputs of:

FMC, IRS, radio navigation aids

AWR, drift and TAS

#262. The almanac in the receiver

determines selective availability

assigns the PRN codes to the satellites

is used to determine receiver clock error

is used to determine which satellites are above the horizon

#263. In a RNAV system the DME is tuned:

by what is selected on the pilots DME and hence is tuned manually

automatically by taking pilot's DME selection

by selecting DMEs to give suitable angle of cut to get a fix automatically

by automatically selecting the nearest suitable DME

#264. Which input to the FMC is taken from sources external to the aircraft?

INS

pressure altitude

magnetic heading from a direct reading compass

VOR/DME

#265. In NAVSTAR/GPS range measurement is achieved by measuring:

the time difference between the minimum number of satellites

the time taken for the signal to travel from the satellite to the receiver

the synchronisation of the satellite and receiver clocks

the time taken for a signal to travel from the receiver to the satellite and return to the receiver

#266. Quadrantal error in the ADF is caused by:

the metallic structure of the aircraft

generative voltages caused by the rotation of the engines

the electrical wiring running through the aircraft

multipath reception

#267. For the FMC the take-off speeds, V1, VR and V2 are found:

in the operating manual and input to the FMC

in the performance database

in the checklist and input manually

in the navigation database

#268. The optimum climb and descent speeds used byn the FMC are found

in the operating manual and input to the FMC

in the performance database

n the checklist and input manually

in the navigation database

#269. The optimum cruise speeds used by the FMC are found:

in the operating manual and input to the FMC

in the performance database

in the checklist and input manually

in the navigation database

#270. Which of the following external inputs is required by the FMC to determine W/V?

magnetic heading

Mach no.

TAS

Track and groundspeed

#271. Which of the following is true concerning the use of GNSS position in the FMC?

it is used to verify and update the IRS position

an alternate source of position must be used and displayed

GNSS position is usable stand alone

GNSS data may only be used in the absence of other positional information

#272. The height derived by a receiver from the NAVSTAR/GPS is

above mean sea level

above ground level

above the WGS84 ellipsoid

pressure altitude

#273. RAIM is achieved:

by ground monitoring stations determining the satellite range errors which are relayed to receivers via geo-stationary satellites

by ground stations determining the X, Y & Z errors and passing the corrections to receivers using pseudolites

within the receiver

any of the above

#274. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation comprises:

6 SVs each in 4 orbits

4 SVs each in 6 orbits

8 SVs each in 3 orbits

3 SVs each in 8 orbits

Dgca Question Bank For Pilots

Results

#1. When would VDF be used for a position fix?

#2. What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VDF letdown?

#3. Which of the following is an advantage of a VDF let down?

#4. What is the maximum range at which a VDF station at 325 ft can provide a service to an aircraft at FL080?

#5. Which of the following statements regarding VHF direction finding (VDF) is most accurate?

#6. What is the wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 375 kHz?

#7. A NDB transmits a signal pattern which is

#8. The accuracy of ADF within the DOC by day is:

#9. Given that the compass heading is 270°, the deviation is 2°W, the variation is 30°E and the relative bearing of a beacon is 316°, determine the QDR:

#10. Two NDB's, one 20 nm from the coast and the other 50 nm further inland. Assuming coastal error is the same for each, from which NDB will an aircraft flying over the sea receive the greatest error?

#11. Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on the accuracy of ADF bearings?

#12. Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF?

#13. What action must be taken to receive a bearing from an ADF?

#14. When is coastal error at its worst for an aircraft at low level?

#15. A radio beacon has a range of 10 nm. By what factor should the power be increased to achieve a range of 20 nm?

#16. Which of the following is the most significant error in ADF?

#17. Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings?

#18. The allocated frequency coverage of NDB's is:

#19. The principle used to measure VOR bearings is:

#20. When converting VOR and ADF bearings to true, the variation at the …… should be used for VOR and at the …… for ADF.

#21. An aircraft flies from a VOR at 61N 013W to 58N 013W. The variation at the beacon is 13W and the variation at the aircraft is 5W. What radial is the aircraft on?

#22. In a conventional VOR the reference signal and the variable signal have a 30 Hz modulation. The variable signal modulation is produced by:

#23. If the VOR accuracy has a limit of 1.0°, what is the maximum cross track error at 200 nm?

#24. What is the maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and have the same identification

#25. What is the maximum distance between VOR beacons designating the centreline of an airway (10 nm wide), if the expected VOR bearing error is 5.5°?

#26. On a CVOR the phase difference between the AM and FM signals is 30°. The VOR radial is:

#27. In a certain VORTAC installation the VOR is coding STN and the DME is coding STZ. This means that the distance between the two beacons is in excess of:

#28. Using a 5 dot CDI, how many dots would show for an aircraft on the edge of an airway at 100 nm from the VOR beacon?

#29. The maximum range an aircraft at FL370 can receive transmissions from a VOR/DME at 800 ft is:

#30. When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly:

#31. Which of the following is a valid frequency (MHz) for a VOR?

#32. Using a VOR beyond the limits of the DOC may result in:

#33. An aircraft is flying a heading of 090° along the equator, homing to a VOR. If variation at the aircraft is 10°E and 15°E at the VOR, what is the inbound radial?

#34. When identifying a co-located VOR/DME the following signals are heard in the Morse code every 30 seconds:

#35. What is the maximum range a transmission from a VOR beacon at 169 ft can be received by an aircraft at FL012

#36. An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are:

#37. When tracking the 090 radial outbound from a VOR, the track flown is:

#38. The frequency band of VOR is:

#39. On which radial from a VOR at 61N025E (VAR 13°E) is an aircraft at 59N025E (VAR 20°E)?

#40. What is the minimum height an aircraft must be to receive signals from a VOR at 196 ft amsl at a range of 175 nm?

#41. For a conventional VOR a phase difference of 090° would be achieved by flying …… from the beacon:

#42. At a range of 200 nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft?

#43. The quoted accuracy of VOR is valid:

#44. Which of the following provides distance information?

#45. Which of the following would give the best indication of speed?

#46. What happens when a DME in the search mode fails to achieve lock-on?

#47. The most accurate measurement of speed by DME for an aircraft at 30000 ft will be when the aircraft is:

#48. A DME beacon will become saturated when more than about …… aircraft are interrogating the transponder.

#49. A typical DME frequency is:

#50. The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve lock on a DME at msl at a range of 210 nm. The reason for this is:

#51. The aircraft DME receiver accepts replies to its own transmissions but rejects replies to other aircraft transmissions because:

#52. When an aircraft at FL360 is directly above a DME, at mean sea level, the range displayed will be:

#53. A DME frequency could be:

#54. A DME transceiver does not lock onto its own reflections because:

#55. A DME transceiver does not lock onto its own reflections because:

#56. What information does military TACAN provide for civil aviation users?

#57. The DME in an aircraft flying at FL430 shows a range of 15 nm from a beacon at an elevation of 167 ft. The plan range is:

#58. What are the DME frequencies?

#59. The time from the transmission of the interrogation pulse to the receipt of the reply from the DME ground station is 2000 microseconds (ignore the delay at the DME). The slant range is:

#60. The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that:

#61. On a DME presentation the counters are continuously rotating. This indicates:

#62. An aircraft at FL200 is 220 nm from a DME at msl. The aircraft equipment fails to lock on to the DME. This is because:

#63. On an ILS approach you receive more of the 90 Hz modulation than the 150 Hz modulation. The action you should take is:

#64. The errors of an ILS localiser (LLZ) beam are due to:

#65. The amplitude modulation of the ILS outer marker is ……. and it illuminates the …… light in the cockpit.

#66. The principle of operation of the ILS localiser transmitter is that it transmits two overlapping lobes on:

#67. The ILS glideslope transmitter generates false glidepaths because of:

#68. A category III ILS system provides accurate guidance down to:

#69. A HSI compass rose is stuck on 200°. When the aircraft is lined up on the centreline of the ILS localiser for runway 25, the localiser needle will be:

#70. The coverage of the ILS glideslope with respect to the localiser centreline is:

#71. The middle marker is usually located at a range of ……, with an audio frequency of …… and illuminates the …… light.

#72. The sequence of marker colours when flying an ILS approach is:

#73. The sensitive area of an ILS is the area aircraft may not enter when:

#74. The ILS localiser is normally positioned:

#75. The audio frequency of the outer marker is:

#76. An aircraft is flying downwind outside the coverage of the ILS. The CDI indications will be:

#77. The frequency band of the ILS glidepath is

#78. In which band does the ILS glidepath operate?