REVISION 2 – Air – DGCA Question Bank For Politics

#1. An aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and altitude is flying from a cold airmass into warmer air. The effect of the change of temperature on the speed will be:

CAS will increase

EAS will decrease

TAS will increase

CAS will increase

#2. Select the correct statement:

EAS = CAS corrected for compressibility error

EAS = IAS corrected for position error

CAS = TAS corrected for density error

TAS = EAS corrected for compressibility error

#3. VLO is defined as:

the maximum speed at which to fly with the landing gear retracted

the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted or extended

the maximum speed at which to fly with the landing gear extended

the minimum speed at which to fly with the landing gear extended

#4. An aircraft taking off from an airfield with QNH set in the altimeter has both static vents blocked by ice. As the aircraft climbs away the altimeter will:

Read the airfield elevation

Indicate the aircraft height amsl

Read the height of the aircraft above the airfield

Show only a very small increase in height

#5. In an inertial-lead VSI the source of the most pronounced error is:

Instrument

Position

Steep turn

Missed approach manoeuver

#6. An aircraft is descending at a constant mach number. If the aircraft is descending through an inversion layer, the CAS will:

Remain constant

Increase

Decrease

Decrease then decrease more slowly

#7. The combined Machmeter/ASI is subject to the following errors:

Position, density, instrument, compressibility, manoeuvre induced

Those of the Machmeter only

Instrument, pressure and temperature only

Instrument and compressibility only

#8. You are flying at a constant FL 290 and constant mach number. The total temperature increases by 5°. The CAS will:

remain approximately constant

increase by 10 kts

decrease by 10 kts

will increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or below ISA.

#9. A factor giving an error on a direct indicating compass would be:

crosswinds - particularly on east/west headings

parallax due to oscillations of the compass rose

acceleration on east/west headings

turning through east/west headings

#10. If an aircraft, fitted with a DRMC, takes off on a westerly heading, in the northern hemisphere, the DRMC will indicate:

a turn to the north

oscillates about west

no turn

a turn to south

#11. To improve the horizontality of a compass, the magnet assembly is suspended from a point:

On the centre line of the magnet

Below the centre of gravity

Above the centre of gravity

Varying with magnetic latitude

#12. Which of the following will effect a direct reading compass? ferrous metals, non-ferrous metals, electrical equipment

1 only

1 & 3

1 & 2

all 3

#13. The rigidity (gyroscopic interia. of a gyroscope may be increased by:

Increasing the number of gimbals and decreasing the number of planes of rotation

Increasing the speed of rotation and decreasing the mass of the rotor

Increasing the speed of rotation and increasing the mass of the rotor

Decreasing the speed of rotation and increasing the speed of the rotor.

#14. The gravity erecting device on a vertical gyro is used on which instrument;

directional gyro unit

turn indicator

artificial horizon

gyromagnetic device

#15. If the rpm of the rotor in a turn and slip indicator is higher than normal, the turn indicator will:

Overread the correct rate of turn

Underread the correct rate of turn

Not indicate due to the increased rigidity

Indicate correctly

#16. When the pointer of a rate of turn indicator shows a steady rate of turn:

The calibrated spring is exerting a force about the lateral axis equal to the rate of turn

The force produced by the spring is producing a precession equal to but

The spring is providing a force which produces a precession equal to the rate of turn (in the opposite direction to the turn)

The spring is providing a force which produces a precession equal to the rate of turn (in the same direction as the turn)

#17. With reference to the flux valve of a remote indicating compass:

The flux valve is pendulously mounted and is free to turn to remain aligned with the earth magnetic field

The flux valve is not subject to acceleration errors

The flux valve is pendulously mounted and so it is not subject to or affected by the earth’s magnetic field

The flux valve is fixed to the aircraft and so turns with the aircraft to measure the angle between the aircraft and the earth’s magnetic field

#18. In a Schuler tuned INS, the largest unbounded errors are:

Due to acceleration errors

Track errors due to initial misalignment

Due to real wander of the platform gyroscopes

Created at the first stage of integration

#19. The amber ALERT sign is on an INS control and display unit:

Illuminates steadily for 2 minutes before reaching the next waypoint

Start flashing 2 minutes before reaching the next waypoint and goes out at 30 seconds to run

Illuminates if power from the aircraft bus bar has been lost and the system is operating on standby battery

Illuminates steadily after passing a waypoint in manual mode, until the next leg is programmed in

#20. To obtain heading information from a Gyro Stabilised platform, the gyros should have:

1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis

1 degree of freedom and a vertical axis

2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis

2 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis

#21. What are the advantages of an IRS compared to an INS?

Reduce spin-up time and a dither motor to prevent “lock-out”.

Reduce spin-up time and accuracy not adversely affect by “g”

Increase accuracy and a dither motor to prevent “lock-out”.

Insensitively to “g” and reduced wander of the gyroscope.

#22. What errors can the Air Data Computer correct for? 1. instrument error & ram rise 2. compressibility & density error 3. lag & density error 4. position & temperature error 5. temperature & instrument error 6. manoeuvre error & ram rise 7. manoeuvre & position errors

2 & 4

1 & 6

3 & 7

3 & 5

#23. Which of the following is the FMS normal operating condition in the cruise?

L NAV only

V NAV only

L NAV or V NAV

L NAV and V NAV

#24. Weather Radar returns can be displayed in which of the following EFIS Modes:

Plan Exp ILS Exp VOR

Plan Exp ILS Map

Map Exp ILS Exp VOR

Map ILS VOR

#25. What are the colours used on an EFIS display to show a tuned navigation aid and an airport?

green & white

white & magenta

green & cyan

white & yellow

#26. WXR display is on :

The captains CRT only

The co-pilots CRT only

A special screen

On both the captains and co-pilots CRTs

#27. Altitude select and altitude hold are examples of:

Inner loop functions in pitch

Manometric functions from the ADC

Interlocking functions

Outer loop functions in roll

#28. An autopilot delivers roll commands to the ailerons to achieve a bank angle:

proportional to TAS, but below a specified maximum

set bank of 25 degrees

set bank of 30 degrees

proportional to the deviation from the desired heading, but not exceeding a specified maximum

#29. At 200ft on an auto-land:

The LOC mode is engaged in the roll channel and the G/S mode is engaged in pitch

The LOC mode is engaged in the roll channel and the FLARE mode is engaged in the pitch channel

The ROLL OUT mode is engaged in the Roll channel and the G/S mode is engaged in pitch.

The auto-throttle is maintaining the speed and the pitch channel is maintaining the height.

#30. During a CAT 1 ILS approach, height is indicated by:

GPS

Radio Altimeter

Marker

Barometric

#31. During an approach to autoland at 1500feet;

Off line channels are manually engaged, flare mode is armed

Localiser is controlling the roll channel, off line channels are automatically engaged and flare mode is armed

Localiser is controlling the roll channel, stabiliser is trimmed nose up and roll out is armed

Provided both localiser and glideslope signals are valid LAND 3 will

#32. During an autoland the caption LAND 2 is illuminated. The system is:

Fail active or fail operational

Fail passive

Approaching decision height

Requiring a crew input

#33. If only a single A/P is used to climb, cruise and approach; following a failure:

it is fail passive with redundancy

it is fail operational and will not disconnect

it is fail soft and will not disconnect

it is fail safe and will disconnect

#34. “LOC ARMED” lights up on the FMA part of the PFD, this means:

localiser beam captured

localiser beam armed and awaiting capture

localiser alarm is on

a/c is on localiser centerline

#35. What is the purpose of the auto-synchronisation system in an A/P: 1. Prevents snatching on disengagement 2. Prevents snatching on engagement 3. Cross feeds rudder and aileron inputs for co-ordination 4. May not allow the A/P to engage if unserviceable 5. Displays the control positions 6. Removes standing demands from the autopilot system prior to the CMD button being selected

2,4&6

1,3&5

2,3&5

1,4&6

#36. What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height?

Fail soft

Fail passive

Fail operation or fail active

Land 2 system

#37. Which of the following apply to the a Yaw damper : 1. May aid the pilot in the event of asymmetric thrust after engine failure 2. Applies measured amounts of aileron to counter dutch roll 3. Increases lateral stability to stop dutch roll 4. Is required at high altitude 5. Can automatically help in turn co-ordination 6. May deflect the rudder to counteract the natural oscillating frequency of the aircraft.

1, 4 & 6

2, 3 & 6

2, 3 & 4

1, 4 & 5

#38. A stall warning system fitted to a large aircraft will always include:

Various inputs including speed brake position, a warning module and a visual or aural warning

Various inputs including landing gear micro switch, a warning module and an aural warning

Various inputs including EGT, a warning module and an aural warning

Stick shakers and/or stick push

#39. TCAS 2 when fitted with mode C transponder may give:

TA only

TA and RA in horizontal plane.

TA and RA in vertical plane.

RA only

#40. The Altitude Alert system alerts the pilot:

At decision height

At the selected altitude

When reference altitude equals the selected altitude

When deviating from the selected altitude

#41. The GPWS uses inputs from;

The radio altimeter, static pressure monitor, ILS receiver and the landing gear and flap position monitors

The radio altimeter and the ILS receiver only

The radio altimeter, ILS receiver, static pressure monitor, and the landing gear position monitor only

The radio altimeter, static pressure monitor, landing gear position monitor, and the flap position monitor only

#42. What are the components of a CVR 1 Microphone 2 Crash/Fire resistant construction 3 Independent battery 4 A Flight data recorder

1 & 2

1 & 4

1, 2, 3 & 4

1, 2 & 4

#43. What corrective action is given by TCAS?

Turn left or right

Climb or descend

Contact ATC

Turn then climb or descend.

#44. What input is there to TCAS 2?

Mode ‘A’ transponder which gives TA and RAs

Mode ‘C’ transponder which co-ordinates avoidance manoeuvres

Mode ‘C’ and ‘S’ transponders which co-ordinate avoidance manoeuvres

Mode ‘S’ transponder which co-ordinates avoidance manoeuvres

#45. When an intruder aircraft has no Altitude Reporting facility, i.e. Mode equipped with ‘A’ transponder only, TCAS can only give:

Corrective RA only

TA followed by a Preventative RA

TA only

Preventative RA only

#46. Which of the following are modes of the GPWS? 1. Excessive sink rate. 2. Altitude loss after T/O or go-around. 3. Excessive Glideslope deviation. 4. High climb rate. 5. Flaps in incorrect position. 6. High altitude descent. 7. Stall.

All 7

1, 2, 3, & 5

1, 2 & 3

1, 3, 5 & 7

#47. A warning message on the EICAS system screen would be:

displayed in amber on the lower screen with associated caution lights and aural tones

displayed in amber, normally on the upper screen with aural warnings .

displayed in red, normally on the upper screen , and requiring immediate corrective action

displayed in amber, normally on the upper screen, indented one space to the right

#48. An aircraft equipped with digital avionics includes an ECAM system. This centralised system, if a failure in one of the monitored systems is displayed, the crew must:

cancel the warning

analyse initially the failure and only respond to a level 1 warning

reset the warning display after noting the failure on the left screen

apply the immediate actions as directed by the checklist on the left of the two screens

#49. An aircraft has a compensated capacitance fuel contents gauging system and is refuelled so that the total fuel contents are 76000kg at a temperature of 18°C and an S.G. of 0.81. Whilst the aircraft is parked the temperature increases to 26°C and the S.G. becomes 0.80. The indicated fuel contents have:

increased by 10%

remained the same

increased by 5%

decreased by 5%

#50. EPR is the ratio of;

The compressor outlet pressure to the compressor inlet pressure

Jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure on a turbo-prop engine only

Jet pipe pressure to the compressor inlet pressure on a gas turbine engine

Jet pipe pressure to the compressor outlet pressure on a gas turbine engine

#51. If one probe of a multi-sensor EGT system became disconnected, the reading would:

Increase by between 20°C to 30°C

Decrease by between 20°C to 30°C

Fall to zero

Be largely unaffected

#52. The principle of the fuel-monitoring device giving an indication of the total fuel burnt is:

multiplying flight time by fuel consumption

capacitance variation of a capacitor

difference of indication according to departure value

integration of instantaneous flow

#53. The red arc in the middle of the green band of a piston engine RPM indicator signifies:

Maximum RPM

Minimum RPM

RPM at which a greater level of vibration is encountered

RPM that must never be exceeded in the cruise

#54. Torque meters provide a reliable measure of power output from:

A turbo-jet engine

A noise suppression unit

A turbo-propeller engine

An APU

#55. Which of the following types of pressure gauge would be best suited to a high pressure input?

aneroid capsule

bourdon tube

bellows

dynamic probe

Dgca Question Bank For Pilots

Results