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Revision Questions
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#1. What happens to the speed for Vx and Vy with increasing altitude?

#2. The affect of a contaminated runway on the field limit mass :

#3. When operating with anti-skid inoperative:

#4. When comparing Vx to Vy:

#5. Referring to Fig. 4.24. Why does the curve for an equivalent weight of 35 000 kg, only start 4 mins after engine failure?

#6. With which conditions would one expect Vmc to be the lowest?

#7. Give the correct order for the following:

#8. If the C of G moves aft from the most forward position:

#9. Descending below the tropopause from FL370 to FL250 at a steady M#, then FL250 to FL100 at a constant CAS. What happens to descent angle?

#10. With a constant weight and M#, a higher altitude will require:

#11. When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt?

#12. An aircraft with a grad of 3.3%, flying at an IAS of 85 KTS. At a P.ALT of 8500’ with a temp of +15°c will have a ROC of:

#13. An aircraft with a mass of 110000kg is capable of maintaining a grad of 2.6%. With all the atmospheric variables remaining the same, with what mass would it be able to achieve a grad of 2.4?

#14. Give the correct sequence:

#15. Flying at an altitude close to coffin corner gives:

#16. The main reason for using the stepped climb technique is to:

#17. Ignoring the effect of compressibility, what would CL do with an increase in altitude?

#18. In climb limited mass calculations, the climb gradient is a ratio of:

#19. In a twin engined jet aircraft with six passenger seats, and a maximum certified take off mass of 5650kg. What is the required en-route obstacle clearance, with one engine inoperative during drift down towards the alternate airport?

#20. When does THRUST = DRAG?

#21. When take off mass is limited by VMBE, an increase in the uphill slope will:

#22. SFC will:

#23. Reference point zero refers to:

#24. To maintain the same angle of attack and altitude at a higher gross weight an aeroplane needs:

#25. The coefficient of lift may be increased by lowering the flaps or:

#26. An aircraft is certified to land with flaps at either 25 or 35 degrees of flap. If the pilot selects the higher setting there will be:

#27. Which conditions are most suited to a selection of lower flap for take off?

#28. During the certification of an aeroplane, the take off distance with all engines operating and the take off distance with one engine inoperative are 1547m 1720m What is the distance used in the aircraft certification?

#29. V2 MIN is determined by: (excluding Vmca)

#30. If the flap setting is changed from 10 degrees to 20 degrees V2 will:

#31. For a turbojet aeroplane the second segment of the climb begins when:

#32. For a turbojet aeroplane the third segment of climb begins when:

#33. The buffet onset boundary chart tells the pilot:

#34. Two identical turbojets are at the same altitude and same speed and have the same specific fuel consumption. Plane 1 weighs 130,000kg and fuel flow is 4,300kg/hr. If plane 2 weighs 115,000kg what is the fuel flow:

#35. The speed for minimum power required in a turbojet will be:

#36. In wet conditions, what extra percentage over the dry gross landing distance must be available for a turbojet?

#37. In dry conditions, when landing at an alternate airport in a turbojet by what factor should the landing distance available be divided by to give landing distance?

#38. What landing distance requirements need to be met at an alternate airfield compared to a destination airfield for a turboprop?

#39. For a twin engined aircraft, which can use either 5 or 15 degrees flap setting, using MRJT fig 4.4 what is the maximum field limited take off mass: Pressure Altitude 7000’ OAT -10°C Length available 2400m Slope Level Wind Calm

#40. Absolute Ceiling is defined by:

#41. VREF for a Class B aircraft is defined by:

#42. VR for a jet aircraft must be faster than, the greater of:

#43. Landing on a runway with 5mm wet snow will:

#44. Take off on a runway with standing water, with a depth of 0.5cm. Compared to a dry runway, field length limited mass will:

#45. A balanced field length is when:

#46. Increase ambient temperature will result in:

#47. Pitch angle during decent at a constant mach number will:

#48. At maximum range speed in a turbojet the angle of attack is:

#49. If there is an increase in atmospheric pressure and all other factors remain constant, it should result in:

#50. Climbing to cruise altitude with a headwind will:

#51. Requirements for the third segment of climb are:

#52. If the calculations for an aeroplane of 3250lb indicate a service ceiling of 4000m, what will the service ceiling be when the actual take off mass is 3000lb?

#53. The drift down is a procedure applied:

#54. Why is there a requirement for an approach climb gradient?

#55. A light twin engined aircraft is climbing from the screen height of 50ft, and has an obstacle 10,000m along the net flight path. If the net climb gradient is 10%, there is no wind and obstacle is 900m above the aerodrome elevation then what will the clearance be?

#56. Take off run required for a jet aircraft, with one engine inoperative is:

#57. A jet aircraft’s maximum altitude is usually limited by:

#58. With respect to en-route diversions (using drift down graph), if you believe that you will not clear an obstacle do you:

#59. With respect to field length limit, fill in the blanks in the follow statement. “The distance to accelerate to ________, at which point an engine fails, followed by the reaction time of _________ and the ensuing deceleration to a full stop must be completed within the ____________.”

#60. How does the power required graph move with an increase in altitude?

#61. In a climb, at a constant IAS / Mach No. 300 kts / 0.78 M. What happens at the change over point ( 29 500 ft, ISA ) ?

#62. If not VMBE or Vmcg limited, what would V1 be limited by ?

#63. What procedure is likely to require V1 to be reduced ?

#64. What factors would cause V2 to be limited by Vmca?

#65. Which of the following is not affected by a tailwind :

#66. When flying an aircraft on the back of the drag curve, maintaining a slower speed (but still faster than VS) would require :

#67. During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the measured take off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35ft above the take off surface are: 1747 m with all engines operating. 1950 m with the critical engine failure recognised at V1, other factors remaining unchanged. What is the correct value of the Take off Run?

#68. Taking into account the following, what would be the minimum required head wind component for landing ? ( Using fig 2.4 in the CAP 698. ) Factored landing distance of 1300 ft. ISA temperature at MSL. Landing mass of 3200 lbs.

#69. Two identical aircraft at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics?

#70. When flying in a headwind, the speed for max range should be :

#71. VLO is defined as :

#72. When flying at the optimum range altitude, over time the :

#73. What happens to the field limited take off mass with runway slope ?

#74. For a given aircraft mass, flying with a cost index greater that zero set will result in :

#75. Cruising with 1 or 2 engines inoperative at high altitude, compared to all engines operative cruise, range will :

#76. Taking into account the values given below, what would be the maximum authorised brake release mass ? Flap : 5° 10° 15° Field limited mass : 49 850 kg 52 500 kg 56 850 kg Climb limited mass : 51 250 kg 49 300 kg 45 500 kg

#77. A turbo-prop aircraft with a maximum all up mass in excess of 5700 kg, is limited to :

#78. With regards to the optimum altitude during the cruise, the aircraft is :

#79. A tailwind on take off will not affect :

#80. When climbing at a constant M# through the troposphere, TAS :

#81. Concerning landing gear, which factors limit take off performance ?

#82. In a glide ( power off descent ) if pitch angle is increased, glide distance will :

#83. With which conditions would the aircraft need to be flown, in order to achieve maximum speed?

#84. If a jet engine fails during take off, before V1 :

#85. Up to which height in NADP 1 noise abatement procedure must V2 + 10-20 Kts be maintained ?

#86. At MSL, in ISA conditions. Climb gradient = 6 % What would the climb gradient be if : P.Altitude 1000 ft Temperature 17°C Engine anti-ice on. Wing anti-ice on. ( - 0.2 % engine anti-ice, - 0,1 % wing anti ice, ± 0.2 % per 1000 ft P.altitude, ± 0.1 % per 1°C ISA deviation )

#87. An aircraft with 180 minutes approval for ETOPS, must be :

#88. In a balanced turn load factor is dependant on :

#89. Putting in 16500 litres of fuel with an SG of 780 kg/m³, and writing 16500 kg of fuel on the load sheet will result in :

#90. If V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following statements will be true?

#91. When gliding into a headwind airspeed should be :

#92. How does the slush thickness affect the V1 reduction required ?

#93. Which denotes the stall speed in the landing configuration ?

#94. When in a gliding manoeuvre, in order to achieve maximum endurance the aircraft should be flown at :

#95. When descending below the optimum altitude at the long range cruise speed :

#96. What does density altitude signify ?

#97. For a turbo-prop aircraft, the LDA at an aerodrome is 2200 m. If the conditions are indicated as wet, what would the equivalent dry LDA be ?

#98. During aircraft certification, the value of VMCG is found with nose wheel steering inoperative. This is because :

#99. Referring to Fig 4.28. What would the landing distance required be for a MRJT aircraft with anti-skid inoperative if: Pressure altitude 2000 feet. Mass 50 000 kg Flaps for short field. 15 Kts Tailwind Dry runway

#100. Which is true regarding a balanced field ?

#101. Climbing in the troposphere at a constant TAS :

#102. When a MRJT aircraft descends at the maximum range speed :

#103. What condition is found at the intersection of the thrust available and the drag curve :

#104. Out of the four forces acting on the aircraft in flight, what balances thrust in the climb ?

#105. According to the information in a light aircraft manual, which gives two power settings for cruise, 65 % and 75 %. If you fly at 75 % in stead of 65 % :

#106. With a downward sloping runway :

#107. How is fuel consumption affected by the C of G position, in terms of ANM / kg?

#108. Rate of Climb 1000 ft/min TAS 198 kts What is the aircraft’s gradient ?

#109. The reduced thrust take off procedure may not be used when :

#110. If the maximum take off mass is limited by tyre speed, what affect would a down sloping runway have ?

#111. With an obstacle which is 160 m above the airfield elevation and 5000 m away from the end of the take off distance. ( Screen height 50 ft ) What would the obstacle clearance be with a gradient of 5% ?

#112. Prior to take off the brake temperature needs to be checked, because :

#113. A turbo jet is flying at a constant M # in the cruise, how does SFC vary with OAT in Kelvin?

#114. If an aircraft has a stall speed of 100 Kts, what would the speed on short finals have to be ?

#115. When descending at a constant M #, which speed is most likely to be exceeded first ?

#116. What is meant by ‘Equivalent weight’ on the drift down profile graph ?

#117. What happens to the speeds, VX and VY, when lowering the aircraft’s undercarriage ?

#118. Maximum Endurance :

#119. What factors affect descent angle in a glide ?

#120. What is meant by balanced field available ?

#121. For a piston-engined aeroplane at a constant altitude, angle of attack and configuration, an increased weight will require :

#122. In the climb an aircraft has a thrust to weight ratio of 1:4 and a lift to drag ratio of 12: 1. While ignoring the slight difference between lift and weight in the climb, the climb gradient will be:

#123. Which of the following will not decrease the value of VS?

#124. All other factors being equal, the speed for minimum drag is:

#125. Taking into account the values given below, what would be the maximum authorised brake release mass with a 10 Kt tailwind? Flap : 5° 10° 15° Field limited mass : 49 850 kg 52 500 kg 56 850 kg Climb limited mass : 51 250 kg 49 300 kg 45 500 kg Assume 370kg per Kt of tailwind.

#126. If a turn is commenced during the take off climb path : (i) The load factor (ii) The induced drag (iii) The climb gradient

#127. What effect does an increase in weight have on V1 ?

#128. VR for a Class A aeroplane must not be less than:

#129. As speed is reduced from VMD to VMP :

#130. The maximum induced drag occurs at a speed of :

#131. Profile drag is :

#132. VMD for a jet aeroplane is approximately equal to :

#133. The best EAS / Drag ratio is approximately :

#134. The effect an increase of weight has on the value of stalling speed (IAS) is that VS .

#135. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the effect of changes of ambient temperature on an aeroplane’s performance, assuming all other performance parameters remain constant ?

#136. What percentages of the head wind and tail wind components are taken into account, when calculating the take off field length required ?

#137. For a turbo jet aircraft planning to land on a wet runway, the landing distance available :

#138. The effect of installing more powerful engines in a turbojet aircraft is :

#139. In relation to runway strength, the ACN :

#140. An aerodrome has a clearway of 500m and a stopway of 200m. If the stopway is extended to 500m the effect will be :

#141. An aircraft is climbing at a constant power setting and a speed of VX. If the speed is reduced and the power setting maintained the :

#142. An aircraft is climbing in a standard atmosphere above the tropopause at a constant Mach number :

#143. An aircraft is climbing at a constant IAS, below the Mach limit. As height increases :

#144. Optimum altitude can be defined as :

#145. . If an aircraft is descending at a constant Mach number :

#146. For a given flight level, the speed range determined by the buffet onset boundary chart will decrease with :

#147. Which of the following variables will not affect the shape or position of the drag vs. IAS curve, for speeds below MCRIT ?

#148. Which of the following would give the greatest gliding endurance ?

#149. The tyre speed limit is :

#150. What gives one the greatest gliding time?

#151. For take off performance calculations, what is taken into account ?

#152. Which 3 speeds are effectively the same for a jet aircraft ?

#153. The long range cruise speed is a speed that gives :

#154. When an aircraft takes-off at the mass it was limited to by the TODA:

#155. Which of the following speeds give the maximum obstacle clearance in the climb?

#156. The tangent, from the origin to the Power required curve gives?

#157. For a jet flying at a constant altitude, at the maximum range speed, what is the effect on IAS and Drag over time?

#158. If an aircraft descends at a constant Mach #, what will the first limiting speed be?

#159. For an aircraft gliding at it’s best glide range speed, if AoA is reduced:

#160. If an aircraft’s climb schedule was changed from 280 / 0.74 M to 290 / 0.74 M, what would happen to the change over altitude?

#161. What happens to the cost index when flying above the optimum Long Range cruise speed?

#162. For an aircraft flying at the Long Range cruise speed, ( i ) Specific Range and ( ii ) Fuel to time ratio:

#163. By what percentage should V2 be greater than VMCA?

#164. If a turbo-prop aircraft has a wet LDA of 2200m, what would the equivalent dry landing distance allowed be?

#165. If a TOD of 800m is calculated at sea level, on a level, dry runway, with standard conditions and with no wind, what would the TOD be for the conditions listed below? 2000 ft Airfield elevation QNH 1013.25mb Temp. of 21°C 5 kts of tailwind Dry runway with a 2% up slope. (Assuming: ±20m/1000ft elevation, +10m/1kt of reported tailwind, ±5m/1°C ISA deviation and the standard slope adjustments)

#166. At a constant mass and altitude, a lower airspeed requires:

#167. On a piston engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at a constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration, the power required:

#168. Reduced take off thrust:

#169. Reduced take off thrust:

#170. May the anti-skid be considered in determining the take off and landing mass limits?

#171. Climb limited take-off mass can be increased by:

#172. An operator shall ensure that the aircraft clears all obstacles in the net take-off flight path. The half-width of the Obstacle Accountability Area (Domain) at distance D from the end of the TODA is:

#173. The take-off performance for a turbo-jet aircraft using 10° Flap results in the following limitations: Obstacle clearance limited mass: 4 630 kg Field length limited mass: 5 270 kg Given that it is intended to take-off with a mass of 5 000 kg, which of the following statements is true?

#174. Induced drag?

#175. What is the formula for Specific Range?

#176. When does the first segment of the take-off climb begin?

#177. A headwind component:

#178. V1 is limited by:

#179. VR is:

#180. What is the affect of an increase in pressure altitude?

#181. What affects endurance?

#182. What degrades aircraft performance?

#183. If your take-off is limited by the climb limit mass, what is the effect of a headwind?

#184. What is the effect on Accelerate Stop Distance of the Anti-Skid system being inoperative?

#185. What is VRef ?

#186. During planning Vmcg is found to be greater than V1 . If V1 is adjusted to equal Vmcg and engine failure occurs at the new V1 , then:

#187. Refer to CAP698 Fig 2.1. What is the Gross TODR for an aircraft in the following conditions: A/C TOM 1,591 kg Field elevation 1,500ft (QNH 1013), OAT is +18 Deg.C, 16 Kts Headwind Component, 1% downhill slope, Paved, dry surface, No stopway or clearway.

#188. What is the Take Off Run defined as for a Class A aircraft:

#189. Losing an engine during the take off above Vmca means the aircraft will be able to maintain:

#190. A turbo-propeller aircraft is certified with a maximum take-off mass of 5600 kg and a maximum passenger seating of 10. This aircraft would be certified in:

#191. How does the thrust from a fixed propeller change during the take-off run of an aircraft?

#192. The take-off run is defined as:

#193. What effect does a downhill slope have on the take-off speeds?

#194. Which of the following combinations most reduces the take-off and climb performance of an aircraft?

#195. Density altitude is:

#196. The take-off climb gradient:

#197. The effect of changing altitude on the maximum rate of climb (ROC) and speed for best rate of climb for a turbo-jet aircraft, assuming everything else remains constant, is:

#198. A runway at an aerodrome has a declared take-off run of 3000 m with 2000 m of clearway. The maximum distance that may be allowed for the take-off distance is:

#199. An aircraft may use either 5° or 15° flap setting for take off. The effect of selecting the 5° setting as compared to the 15° setting is:

#200. The use of reduced thrust for take-off is permitted:

#201. Planning the performance for a runway with no obstacles, it is found that the climb limiting take-off mass is significantly greater than the field limiting take-off mass with 5° flap selected. How can the limiting take-off mass be increased?

#202. The maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by

#203. If the TAS is 175 kt and the rate of climb 1250 ft per minute, the climb gradient is approximately:

#204. A pilot inadvertently selects a V1 which is lower than the correct V1 for the actual take-off weight. What problem will the pilot encounter if an engine fails above the selected V1 but below the true V1?

#205. A turbo-jet is in a climb at a constant IAS what happens to the drag?

#206. Comparing the take-off performance of an aircraft from an aerodrome at 1000 ft to one taking off from an aerodrome at 6000 ft, the aircraft taking off from the aerodrome at 1000 ft:

#207. Which is the correct sequence of speed?

#208. Which of the following will increase the accelerate-stop distance on a dry runway?

#209. A turbo-jet aircraft is climbing at a constant Mach number in the troposphere. Which of the following statements is correct?

#210. The induced drag in an aeroplane:

#211. The speed range between low speed and high speed buffet:

#212. Thrust equals drag:

#213. A higher mass at a given altitude will reduce the gradient of climb and the rate of climb. But the speeds:

#214. If the other factors are unchanged the fuel mileage (nm per kg) is:

#215. Concerning maximum range in a turbo-jet aircraft, which of the following is true?

#216. Concerning maximum range in a turbo-jet aircraft, which of the following is true?

#217. V1 is the speed:

#218. A constant headwind in the descent:

#219. For a turbojet aircraft what is the reason for the use of maximum range speed?

#220. Why are step climbs used on long range flights in jet transport aircraft?

#221. The absolute ceiling of an aircraft is:

#222. In the take-off flight path, the net climb gradient when compared to the gross gradient is:

#223. To answer this question use CAP698 SEP1 figure 2.1. Conditions: aerodrome pressure altitude 1000 ft, temperature +30°C, level, dry, concrete runway and 5 kt tailwind component. What is the regulated take-off distance to 50 ft for an aircraft weight 3500 lb if there is no stopway or clearway?

#224. To answer this question use CAP698 MRJT figure 4.4. Conditions: Pressure altitude 5000 ft, temperature –5°C, balanced field length 2500 m, level runway, wind calm. What is the maximum field length limited take-off mass and optimum flap setting?

#225. The effect of a headwind component on glide range:

#226. Refer to CAP398 MRJT figure 4.24. At a mass of 35000 kg, why does the drift down curve start at approximately 3 minutes at an altitude of 37000 ft?

#227. A twin engine turbo-jet aircraft having lost one engine must clear obstacles in the drift down by a minimum of:

#228. The landing speed, VREF, for a single engine aircraft must be not less than:

#229. What factor must be applied to the landing distance available at the destination aerodrome to determine the landing performance of a turbo-jet aircraft on a dry runway?

#230. An aircraft is certified to use two landing flap positions, 25° and 35°. If the pilot selects 25° instead of 35° then the aircraft will have

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